Chapter 23 Nursing School Test Banks

 

1.

A perioperative nurse is caring for a postoperative patient. The patient has a shallow respiratory pattern and is reluctant to cough or to begin mobilizing. The nurse should address the patients increased risk for what complication?

A)

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

B)

Atelectasis

C)

Aspiration

D)

Pulmonary embolism

Ans:

B

Feedback:

A shallow, monotonous respiratory pattern coupled with immobility places the patient at an increased risk of developing atelectasis. These specific factors are less likely to result in pulmonary embolism or aspiration. ARDS involves an exaggerated inflammatory response and does not normally result from factors such as immobility and shallow breathing.

2.

A critical-care nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with pneumonia as a surgical complication. The nurses assessment reveals that the patient has an increased work of breathing due to copious tracheobronchial secretions. What should the nurse encourage the patient to do?

A)

Increase oral fluids unless contraindicated.

B)

Call the nurse for oral suctioning, as needed.

C)

Lie in a low Fowlers or supine position.

D)

Increase activity.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

The nurse should encourage hydration because adequate hydration thins and loosens pulmonary secretions. Oral suctioning is not sufficiently deep to remove tracheobronchial secretions. The patient should have the head of the bed raised, and rest should be promoted to avoid exacerbation of symptoms.

3.

The public health nurse is administering Mantoux tests to children who are being registered for kindergarten in the community. How should the nurse administer this test?

A)

Administer intradermal injections into the childrens inner forearms.

B)

Administer intramuscular injections into each childs vastus lateralis.

C)

Administer a subcutaneous injection into each childs umbilical area.

D)

Administer a subcutaneous injection at a 45-degree angle into each childs deltoid.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

The purified protein derivative (PPD) is always injected into the intradermal layer of the inner aspect of the forearm. The subcutaneous and intramuscular routes are not utilized.

4.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle accident and the care team suspects that the patient has developed pleurisy. Which of the nurses assessment findings would best corroborate this diagnosis?

A)

The patient is experiencing painless hemoptysis.

B)

The patients arterial blood gases (ABGs) are normal, but he demonstrates increased work of breathing.

C)

The patients oxygen saturation level is below 88%, but he denies shortness of breath.

D)

The patients pain intensifies when he coughs or takes a deep breath.

Ans:

D

Feedback:

The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain. The patients ABGs would most likely be abnormal and shortness of breath would be expected.

5.

The nurse caring for a patient recently diagnosed with lung disease encourages the patient not to smoke. What is the primary rationale behind this nursing action?

A)

Smoking decreases the amount of mucus production.

B)

Smoke particles compete for binding sites on hemoglobin.

C)

Smoking causes atrophy of the alveoli.

D)

Smoking damages the ciliary cleansing mechanism.

Ans:

D

Feedback:

In addition to irritating the mucous cells of the bronchi and inhibiting the function of alveolar macrophage (scavenger) cells, smoking damages the ciliary cleansing mechanism of the respiratory tract. Smoking also increases the amount of mucus production and distends the alveoli in the lungs. It reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin, but not by directly competing for binding sites.

6.

A patient has been brought to the ED by the paramedics. The patient is suspected of having ARDS. What intervention should the nurse first anticipate?

A)

Preparing to assist with intubating the patient

B)

Setting up oxygen at 5 L/minute by nasal cannula

C)

Performing deep suctioning

D)

Setting up a nebulizer to administer corticosteroids

Ans:

A

Feedback:

A patient who has ARDS usually requires intubation and mechanical ventilation. Oxygen by nasal cannula would likely be insufficient. Deep suctioning and nebulizers may be indicated, but the priority is to secure the airway.

7.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a lobectomy for a diagnosis of lung cancer. While assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion, the nurse notes the clients oxygen saturation rapidly dropping. The patient complains of shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects a pneumothorax has developed. Further assessment findings supporting the presence of a pneumothorax include what?

A)

Diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side

B)

Paradoxical chest wall movement with respirations

C)

Sudden loss of consciousness

D)

Muffled heart sounds

Ans:

A

Feedback:

In the case of a simple pneumothorax, auscultating the breath sounds will reveal absent or diminished breath sounds on the affected side. Paradoxical chest wall movements occur in flail chest conditions. Sudden loss of consciousness does not typically occur. Muffled or distant heart sounds occur in pericardial tamponade.

8.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who developed a pulmonary embolism after total knee surgery. The patient has been converted from heparin to sodium warfarin (Coumadin) anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse teach the client?

A)

Coumadin will continue to break up the clot over a period of weeks

B)

Coumadin must be taken concurrent with ASA to achieve anticoagulation.

C)

Anticoagulant therapy usually lasts between 3 and 6 months.

D)

He should take a vitamin supplement containing vitamin K

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Anticoagulant therapy prevents further clot formation, but cannot be used to dissolve a clot. The therapy continues for approximately 3 to 6 months and is not combined with ASA. Vitamin K reverses the effect of anticoagulant therapy and normally should not be taken.

9.

A new employee asks the occupational health nurse about measures to prevent inhalation exposure of the substances. Which statement by the nurse will decrease the patients exposure risk to toxic substances?

A)

Position a fan blowing on the toxic substances to prevent the substance from becoming stagnant in the air.

B)

Wear protective attire and devices when working with a toxic substance.

C)

Make sure that you keep your immunizations up to date to prevent respiratory diseases resulting from toxins.

D)

Always wear a disposable paper face mask when you are working with inhalable toxins.

Ans:

B

Feedback:

When working with toxic substances, the employee must wear or use protective devices such as face masks, hoods, or industrial respirators. Immunizations do not confer protection from toxins and a paper mask is normally insufficient protection. Never position a fan directly blowing on the toxic substance as it will disperse the fumes throughout the area.

10.

An x-ray of a trauma patient reveals rib fractures and the patient is diagnosed with a small flail chest injury. Which intervention should the nurse include in the patients plan of care?

A)

Suction the patients airway secretions.

B)

Immobilize the ribs with an abdominal binder.

C)

Prepare the patient for surgery.

D)

Immediately sedate and intubate the patient.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

As with rib fracture, treatment of flail chest is usually supportive. Management includes clearing secretions from the lungs, and controlling pain. If only a small segment of the chest is involved, it is important to clear the airway through positioning, coughing, deep breathing, and suctioning. Intubation is required for severe flail chest injuries, and surgery is required only in rare circumstances to stabilize the flail segment.

11.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oxygen therapy for pneumonia. How should the nurse best assess whether the patient is hypoxemic?

A)

Assess the patients level of consciousness (LOC).

B)

Assess the patients extremities for signs of cyanosis.

C)

Assess the patients oxygen saturation level.

D)

Review the patients hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell levels.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

The effectiveness of the patients oxygen therapy is assessed by the ABG analysis or pulse oximetry. ABG results may not be readily available. Presence or absence of cyanosis is not an accurate indicator of oxygen effectiveness. The patients LOC may be affected by hypoxia, but not every change in LOC is related to oxygenation. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell levels do not directly reflect current oxygenation status.

12.

An adult patient has tested positive for tuberculosis (TB). While providing patient teaching, what information should the nurse prioritize?

A)

The importance of adhering closely to the prescribed medication regimen

B)

The fact that the disease is a lifelong, chronic condition that will affect ADLs

C)

The fact that TB is self-limiting, but can take up to 2 years to resolve

D)

The need to work closely with the occupational and physical therapists

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Successful treatment of TB is highly dependent on careful adherence to the medication regimen. The disease is not self-limiting; occupational and physical therapy are not necessarily indicated. TB is curable.

13.

The nurse is assessing an adult patient following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse observes that the patient has an increased use of accessory muscles and is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. The nurse should recognize the possibility of what condition?

A)

Pneumothorax

B)

Anxiety

C)

Acute bronchitis

D)

Aspiration

Ans:

A

Feedback:

If the pneumothorax is large and the lung collapses totally, acute respiratory distress occurs. The patient is anxious, has dyspnea and air hunger, has increased use of the accessory muscles, and may develop central cyanosis from severe hypoxemia. These symptoms are not definitive of pneumothorax, but because of the patients recent trauma they are inconsistent with anxiety, bronchitis, or aspiration.

14.

The nurse at a long-term care facility is assessing each of the residents. Which resident most likely faces the greatest risk for aspiration?

A)

A resident who suffered a severe stroke several weeks ago

B)

A resident with mid-stage Alzheimers disease

C)

A 92-year-old resident who needs extensive help with ADLs

D)

A resident with severe and deforming rheumatoid arthritis

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Aspiration may occur if the patient cannot adequately coordinate protective glottic, laryngeal, and cough reflexes. These reflexes are often affected by stroke. A patient with mid-stage Alzheimers disease does not likely have the voluntary muscle problems that occur later in the disease. Clients that need help with ADLs or have severe arthritis should not have difficulty swallowing unless it exists secondary to another problem.

15.

The nurse is caring for a patient suspected of having ARDS. What is the most likely diagnostic test ordered in the early stages of this disease to differentiate the patients symptoms from those of a cardiac etiology?

A)

Carboxyhemoglobin level

B)

Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level

C)

C-reactive protein (CRP) level

D)

Complete blood count

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Common diagnostic tests performed for patients with potential ARDS include plasma brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels, echocardiography, and pulmonary artery catheterization. The BNP level is helpful in distinguishing ARDS from cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The carboxyhemoglobin level will be increased in a client with an inhalation injury, which commonly progresses into ARDS. CRP and CBC levels do not help differentiate from a cardiac problem.

16.

The nurse is caring for a patient at risk for atelectasis. The nurse implements a first-line measure to prevent atelectasis development in the patient. What is an example of a first-line measure to minimize atelectasis?

A)

Incentive spirometry

B)

Intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB)

C)

Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)

D)

Bronchoscopy

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Strategies to prevent atelectasis, which include frequent turning, early ambulation, lung-volume expansion maneuvers (deep breathing exercises, incentive spirometry), and coughing, serve as the first-line measures to minimize or treat atelectasis by improving ventilation. In patients who do not respond to first-line measures or who cannot perform deep-breathing exercises, other treatments such as positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP), continuous or intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB), or bronchoscopy may be used.

17.

While planning a patients care, the nurse identifies nursing actions to minimize the patients pleuritic pain. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

A)

Avoid actions that will cause the patient to breathe deeply.

B)

Ambulate the patient at least three times daily.

C)

Arrange for a soft-textured diet and increased fluid intake.

D)

Encourage the patient to speak as little as possible

Ans:

A

Feedback:

The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain. A soft diet is not necessarily indicated and there is no need for the patient to avoid speaking. Ambulation has multiple benefits, but pain management is not among them.

18.

The perioperative nurse is writing a care plan for a patient who has returned from surgery 2 hours prior. Which measure should the nurse implement to most decrease the patients risk of developing pulmonary emboli (PE)?

A)

Early ambulation

B)

Increased dietary intake of protein

C)

Maintaining the patient in a supine position

D)

Administering aspirin with warfarin

Ans:

A

Feedback:

For patients at risk for PE, the most effective approach for prevention is to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Active leg exercises to avoid venous stasis, early ambulation, and use of elastic compression stocking are general preventive measures. The patient does not require increased dietary intake of protein directly related to prevention of PE, although it will assist in wound healing during the postoperative period. The patient should not be maintained in one position, but frequently repositioned, unless contraindicated by the surgical procedure. Aspirin should never be administered with warfarin because it will increase the patients risk for bleeding.

19.

The school nurse is presenting a class on smoking cessation at the local high school. A participant in the class asks the nurse about the risk of lung cancer in those who smoke. What response related to risk for lung cancer in smokers is most accurate?

A)

The younger you are when you start smoking, the higher your risk of lung cancer.

B)

The risk for lung cancer never decreases once you have smoked, which is why smokers need annual chest x-rays.

C)

The risk for lung cancer is determined mostly by what type of cigarettes you smoke.

D)

The risk for lung cancer depends primarily on the other risk factors for cancer that you have.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Risk is determined by the pack-year history (number of packs of cigarettes used each day, multiplied by the number of years smoked), the age of initiation of smoking, the depth of inhalation, and the tar and nicotine levels in the cigarettes smoked. The younger a person is when he or she starts smoking, the greater the risk of developing lung cancer. Risk declines after smoking cessation. The type of cigarettes is a significant variable, but this is not the most important factor.

20.

The nurse is assessing a patient who has a 35 pack-year history of cigarette smoking. In light of this known risk factor for lung cancer, what statement should prompt the nurse to refer the patient for further assessment?

A)

Lately, I have this cough that just never seems to go away.

B)

I find that I dont have nearly the stamina that I used to.

C)

I seem to get nearly every cold and flu that goes around my workplace.

D)

I never used to have any allergies, but now I think Im developing allergies to dust and pet hair.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

The most frequent symptom of lung cancer is cough or change in a chronic cough. People frequently ignore this symptom and attribute it to smoking or a respiratory infection. A new onset of allergies, frequent respiratory infections and fatigue are not characteristic early signs of lung cancer.

21.

A client presents to the walk-in clinic complaining of a dry, irritating cough and production of a minute amount of mucus-like sputum. The patient complains of soreness in her chest in the sternal area. The nurse should suspect that the primary care provider will assess the patient for what health problem?

A)

Pleural effusion

B)

Pulmonary embolism

C)

Tracheobronchitis

D)

Tuberculosis

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Initially, the patient with tracheobronchitis has a dry, irritating cough and expectorates a scant amount of mucoid sputum. The patient may report sternal soreness from coughing and have fever or chills, night sweats, headache, and general malaise. Pleural effusion and pulmonary embolism do not normally cause sputum production and would likely cause acute shortness of breath. Hemoptysis is characteristic of TB.

22.

A hospital has been the site of an increased incidence of hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). What is an important measure for the prevention of HAP?

A)

Administration of prophylactic antibiotics

B)

Administration of pneumococcal vaccine to vulnerable individuals

C)

Obtaining culture and sensitivity swabs from all newly admitted patients

D)

Administration of antiretroviral medications to patients over age 65

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Pneumococcal vaccination reduces the incidence of pneumonia, hospitalizations for cardiac conditions, and deaths in the general older adult population. A onetime vaccination of pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV) is recommended for all patients 65 years of age or older and those with chronic diseases. Antibiotics are not given on a preventative basis and antiretroviral medications do not affect the most common causative microorganisms. Culture and sensitivity testing by swabbing is not performed for pneumonia since the microorganisms are found in sputum.

23.

When assessing for substances that are known to harm workers lungs, the occupational health nurse should assess their potential exposure to which of the following?

A)

Organic acids

B)

Propane

C)

Asbestos

D)

Gypsum

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Asbestos is among the more common causes of pneumoconiosis. Organic acids, propane, and gypsum do not have this effect.

24.

A patient presents to the ED stating she was in a boating accident about 3 hours ago. Now the patient has complaints of headache, fatigue, and the feeling that he just cant breathe enough. The nurse notes that the patient is restless and tachycardic with an elevated blood pressure. This patient may be in the early stages of what respiratory problem?

A)

Pneumoconiosis

B)

Pleural effusion

C)

Acute respiratory failure

D)

Pneumonia

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Early signs of acute respiratory failure are those associated with impaired oxygenation and may include restlessness, fatigue, headache, dyspnea, air hunger, tachycardia, and increased blood pressure. As the hypoxemia progresses, more obvious signs may be present, including confusion, lethargy, tachycardia, tachypnea, central cyanosis, diaphoresis, and, finally, respiratory arrest. Pneumonia is infectious and would not result from trauma. Pneumoconiosis results from exposure to occupational toxins. A pleural effusion does not cause this constellation of symptoms.

25.

The nurse is caring for a 46-year-old patient recently diagnosed with the early stages of lung cancer. The nurse is aware that the preferred method of treating patients with nonsmall cell tumors is what?

A)

Chemotherapy

B)

Radiation

C)

Surgical resection

D)

Bronchoscopic opening of the airway

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Surgical resection is the preferred method of treating patients with localized nonsmall cell tumors with no evidence of metastatic spread and adequate cardiopulmonary function. The other listed treatment options may be considered, but surgery is preferred.

26.

A patient is receiving thrombolytic therapy for the treatment of pulmonary emboli. What is the best way for the nurse to assess the patients oxygenation status at the bedside?

A)

Obtain serial ABG samples.

B)

Monitor pulse oximetry readings.

C)

Test pulmonary function.

D)

Monitor incentive spirometry volumes.

Ans:

B

Feedback:

The nurse assesses the patient with pulmonary emboli frequently for signs of hypoxemia and monitors the pulse oximetry values to evaluate the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy. ABGs are accurate indicators of oxygenation status, but are not analyzed at the bedside. PFTs and incentive spirometry volumes do not accurately reveal oxygenation status.

27.

The nurse is caring for an 82-year-old patient with a diagnosis of tracheobronchitis. The patient begins complaining of right-sided chest pain that gets worse when he coughs or breathes deeply. Vital signs are within normal limits. What would you suspect this patient is experiencing?

A)

Traumatic pneumothorax

B)

Empyema

C)

Pleuritic pain

D)

Myocardial infarction

Ans:

C

Feedback:

The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain. Pleuritic pain is limited in distribution rather than diffuse; it usually occurs only on one side. The pain may become minimal or absent when the breath is held. It may be localized or radiate to the shoulder or abdomen. Later, as pleural fluid develops, the pain decreases. The scenario does not indicate any trauma to the patient, so a traumatic pneumothorax is implausible. Empyema is unlikely as there is no fever indicative of infection. Myocardial infarction would affect the patients vital signs profoundly.

28.

A patient with thoracic trauma is admitted to the ICU. The nurse notes the patients chest and neck are swollen and there is a crackling sensation when palpated. The nurse consequently identifies the presence of subcutaneous emphysema. If this condition becomes severe and threatens airway patency, what intervention is indicated?

A)

A chest tube

B)

A tracheostomy

C)

An endotracheal tube

D)

A feeding tube

Ans:

B

Feedback:

In severe cases in which there is widespread subcutaneous emphysema, a tracheostomy is indicated if airway patency is threatened by pressure of the trapped air on the trachea. The other listed tubes would neither resolve the subcutaneous emphysema nor the consequent airway constriction.

29.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the ICU admitted with ARDS after exposure to toxic fumes from a hazardous spill at work. The patient has become hypotensive. What is the cause of this complication to the ARDS treatment?

A)

Pulmonary hypotension due to decreased cardiac output

B)

Severe and progressive pulmonary hypertension

C)

Hypovolemia secondary to leakage of fluid into the interstitial spaces

D)

Increased cardiac output from high levels of PEEP therapy

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Systemic hypotension may occur in ARDS as a result of hypovolemia secondary to leakage of fluid into the interstitial spaces and depressed cardiac output from high levels of PEEP therapy. Pulmonary hypertension, not pulmonary hypotension, sometimes is a complication of ARDS, but it is not the cause of the patient becoming hypotensive.

30.

The home care nurse is monitoring a patient discharged home after resolution of a pulmonary embolus. For what potential complication would the home care nurse be most closely monitoring this patient?

A)

Signs and symptoms of pulmonary infection

B)

Swallowing ability and signs of aspiration

C)

Activity level and role performance

D)

Residual effects of compromised oxygenation

Ans:

D

Feedback:

The home care nurse should monitor the patient for residual effects of the PE, which involved a severe disruption in respiration and oxygenation. PE has a noninfectious etiology; pneumonia is not impossible, but it is a less likely sequela. Swallowing ability is unlikely to be affected; activity level is important, but secondary to the effects of deoxygenation.

31.

The occupational health nurse is assessing new employees at a company. What would be important to assess in employees with a potential occupational respiratory exposure to a toxin? Select all that apply.

A)

Time frame of exposure

B)

Type of respiratory protection used

C)

Immunization status

D)

Breath sounds

E)

Intensity of exposure

Ans:

A, B, D, E

Feedback:

Key aspects of any assessment of patients with a potential occupational respiratory history include job and job activities, exposure levels, general hygiene, time frame of exposure, effectiveness of respiratory protection used, and direct versus indirect exposures. The patients current respiratory status would also be a priority. Occupational lung hazards are not normally influenced by immunizations.

32.

A 54-year-old man has just been diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. The patient asks the nurse why the doctor is not offering surgery as a treatment for his cancer. What fact about lung cancer treatment should inform the nurses response?

A)

The cells in small cell cancer of the lung are not large enough to visualize in surgery.

B)

Small cell lung cancer is self-limiting in many patients and surgery should be delayed.

C)

Patients with small cell lung cancer are not normally stable enough to survive surgery.

D)

Small cell cancer of the lung grows rapidly and metastasizes early and extensively.

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Surgery is primarily used for NSCLCs, because small cell cancer of the lung grows rapidly and metastasizes early and extensively. Difficult visualization and a patients medical instability are not the limiting factors. Lung cancer is not a self-limiting disease.

33.

A patient who involved in a workplace accident suffered a penetrating wound of the chest that led to acute respiratory failure. What goal of treatment should the care team prioritize when planning this patients care?

A)

Facilitation of long-term intubation

B)

Restoration of adequate gas exchange

C)

Attainment of effective coping

D)

Self-management of oxygen therapy

Ans:

B

Feedback:

The objectives of treatment are to correct the underlying cause of respiratory failure and to restore adequate gas exchange in the lung. This is priority over coping and self-care. Long-term ventilation may or may not be indicated.

34.

A patient is brought to the ED by ambulance after a motor vehicle accident in which the patient received blunt trauma to the chest. The patient is in acute respiratory failure, is intubated, and is transferred to the ICU. What parameters of care should the nurse monitor most closely? Select all that apply.

A)

Coping

B)

Level of consciousness

C)

Oral intake

D)

Arterial blood gases

E)

Vital signs

Ans:

B, D, E

Feedback:

Patients are usually treated in the ICU. The nurse assesses the patients respiratory status by monitoring the level of responsiveness, ABGs, pulse oximetry, and vital signs. Oral intake and coping are not immediate priorities during the acute stage of treatment, but would become more important later during recovery.

35.

A gerontologic nurse is teaching a group of medical nurses about the high incidence and mortality of pneumonia in older adults. What is a contributing factor to this that the nurse should describe?

A)

Older adults have less compliant lung tissue than younger adults.

B)

Older adults are not normally candidates for pneumococcal vaccination.

C)

Older adults often lack the classic signs and symptoms of pneumonia.

D)

Older adults often cannot tolerate the most common antibiotics used to treat pneumonia.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

The diagnosis of pneumonia may be missed because the classic symptoms of cough, chest pain, sputum production, and fever may be absent or masked in older adult patients. Mortality from pneumonia in the elderly is not a result of limited antibiotic options or lower lung compliance. The pneumococcal vaccine is appropriate for older adults.

36.

A patient has just been diagnosed with lung cancer. After the physician discusses treatment options and leaves the room, the patient asks the nurse how the treatment is decided upon. What would be the nurses best response?

A)

The type of treatment depends on the patients age and health status.

B)

The type of treatment depends on what the patient wants when given the options.

C)

The type of treatment depends on the cell type of the cancer, the stage of the cancer, and the patients health status.

D)

The type of treatment depends on the discussion between the patient and the physician of which treatment is best.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Treatment of lung cancer depends on the cell type, the stage of the disease, and the patients physiologic status (particularly cardiac and pulmonary status). Treatment does not depend solely on the patients age or the patients preference between the different treatment modes. The decision about treatment does not primarily depend on a discussion between the patient and the physician of which treatment is best, though this discussion will take place.

37.

A patient in the ICU is status post embolectomy after a pulmonary embolus. What assessment parameter does the nurse monitor most closely on a patient who is postoperative following an embolectomy?

A)

Pupillary response

B)

Pressure in the vena cava

C)

White blood cell differential

D)

Pulmonary arterial pressure

Ans:

D

Feedback:

If the patient has undergone surgical embolectomy, the nurse measures the patients pulmonary arterial pressure and urinary output. Pressure is not monitored in a patients vena cava. White cell levels and pupillary responses would be monitored, but not to the extent of the patients pulmonary arterial pressure.

38.

A firefighter was trapped in a fire and is admitted to the ICU for smoke inhalation. After 12 hours, the firefighter is exhibiting signs of ARDS and is intubated. What other supportive measures are initiated in a patient with ARDS?

A)

Psychological counseling

B)

Nutritional support

C)

High-protein oral diet

D)

Occupational therapy

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Aggressive, supportive care must be provided to compensate for the severe respiratory dysfunction. This supportive therapy almost always includes intubation and mechanical ventilation. In addition, circulatory support, adequate fluid volume, and nutritional support are important. Oral intake is contraindicated by intubation. Counseling and occupational therapy would not be priorities during the acute stage of ARDS.

39.

The nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of a patient with an empyema. What health problem in the patients history is most likely to have caused the empyema?

A)

Smoking

B)

Asbestosis

C)

Pneumonia

D)

Lung cancer

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Most empyemas occur as complications of bacterial pneumonia or lung abscess. Cancer, smoking, and asbestosis are not noted to be common causes.

40.

An 87-year-old patient has been hospitalized with pneumonia. Which nursing action would be a priority in this patients plan of care?

A)

Nasogastric intubation

B)

Administration of probiotic supplements

C)

Bedrest

D)

Cautious hydration

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Supportive treatment of pneumonia in the elderly includes hydration (with caution and with frequent assessment because of the risk of fluid overload in the elderly); supplemental oxygen therapy; and assistance with deep breathing, coughing, frequent position changes, and early ambulation. Mobility is not normally discouraged and an NG tube is not necessary in most cases. Probiotics may or may not be prescribed for the patient.

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