Chapter 44: Diagnostic Procedures Nursing School Test Banks

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A nurse should contact the physician to postpone intravenous moderate sedation if the patient:

a.

has been NPO for 1 hour.

b.

has a history of substance abuse.

c.

has no history of latex allergy.

d.

has demonstrated an understanding of the procedure.

ANS: A

Verify that the patient has not ingested food or fluids, except for oral medications, for at least 4 hours. Verify specific agency requirements. Because a risk of moderate sedation is loss of airway protection, an empty stomach reduces the risk for aspiration. A history of substance abuse is not a contraindication to the procedure, although it usually requires dose adjustment of the sedative. With no history of latex allergy, allergic reactions are not a concern. An understanding of the procedure implies that consent was informed.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1100

OBJ: Demonstrate understanding of nursing responsibilities related to the use of intravenous sedation during diagnostic procedures. TOP: Moderate Sedation

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. Which action should the nurse take after a procedure requiring intravenous moderate sedation?

a.

Report to the physician a Ramsay sedation score that is less than 3.

b.

Monitor airway patency and vital signs every 5 minutes for 30 minutes.

c.

Take vital signs every 15 minutes for the next 2 hours.

d.

Take vital signs every 30 minutes until stable.

ANS: B

After the procedure, monitor airway patency, vital signs, SpO2, pain score, and level of consciousness every 5 minutes for at least 30 minutes, then every 15 minutes for an hour, and then every 30 minutes until the patient meets the discharge criteria on the agencys designated scoring system. Report to the physician only a Ramsay sedation score higher than 3.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1102

OBJ: Demonstrate understanding of nursing responsibilities related to the use of intravenous sedation during diagnostic procedures. TOP: Moderate Sedation

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. Under which circumstances should a nurse contact the physician to postpone an angiography?

a.

If a patient has been NPO for only 1 hour

b.

If a patients femoral site has been shaved and cleansed with an antiseptic

c.

If the patient received Benadryl as a pre-procedure medication

d.

When test results reveal a BUN level of 15 mg/100 mL and a creatinine level of 0.8 mg/mL

ANS: A

A patient needs to be NPO for 6 to 8 hours before the procedure to prevent possible aspiration because the patient is sedated. The site of catheter insertion needs to be shaved and prepped with antiseptic just before the procedure. Benadryl is used prophylactically to block histamine and decrease allergic responses. Elevated BUN or creatinine levels would place patients at risk for renal failure induced by contrast media.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1105

OBJ: Effectively assist health care providers with angiogram, cardiac catheterization, intravenous (IV) pyelogram, bone marrow aspiration/biopsy, lumbar puncture, paracentesis, bronchoscopy, and endoscopy. TOP: Postponing Angiography

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

4. What action should the nurse take after an angiography?

a.

Limit the patients fluid intake.

b.

Have the patient ambulate as soon as possible.

c.

Apply a pressure dressing to the vascular site.

d.

Maintain the patient in a sitting position while he or she is in bed.

ANS: C

Five to 15 minutes of manual pressure is often enough to stop active site bleeding. However, a certain amount of bed rest is needed to achieve reliable hemostasis. Check agency policy for post-procedure bed rest requirements. This is often up to 6 hours when no vascular closure device is used. Encourage patient to drink 1 to 2 L of fluid after the procedure. Emphasize the need to lie flat for 6 to 12 hours.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1107

OBJ: Perform appropriate physical and psychosocial assessments before, during, and after diagnostic procedures. TOP: Post-Angiography Procedure

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

5. The nurse is alert to a possible delayed reaction to the dye injected during an angiography. For which response should she monitor the patient?

a.

Pallor

b.

Dyspnea

c.

Thirst

d.

Numbness and tingling

ANS: B

Assess the patient for a possible delayed reaction to iodine dye, seen as dyspnea, hives, tachycardia, and rash. This reaction occurs up to 6 hours after injection of dye. Thirst, by itself, is not a major warning sign of reaction to the dye. Pallor, by itself, is not a major warning sign of reaction to the dye. A patients report of any feelings of pain, dyspnea, numbness or tingling, or other untoward symptoms may indicate cardiac complications or procedure site complications, but not a reaction to the dye.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1108

OBJ: Perform appropriate physical and psychosocial assessments before, during, and after diagnostic procedures. TOP: Reaction to IV Dye

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

6. The nurse is preparing to assist with a bone marrow aspiration on a 3-month-old infant. The nurse may expect that the physician will use which site to perform the aspiration?

a.

Sternum

b.

Anterior iliac crest

c.

Proximal tibia

d.

Posterior iliac crest

ANS: C

In children, the anterior or posterior iliac crest is used, and in infants, the proximal tibia is used.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1109

OBJ: Effectively assist health care providers with angiogram, cardiac catheterization, intravenous (IV) pyelogram, bone marrow aspiration/biopsy, lumbar puncture, paracentesis, bronchoscopy, and endoscopy. TOP: Bone Marrow Aspiration

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

7. The nurse is discussing the patients upcoming elective lumbar puncture, and explains that the patient will probably need to undergo computed tomography of the brain before the procedure is done. What is the reason for this?

a.

Diagnose CNS infection.

b.

Rule out increased intracranial pressure.

c.

Visualize cerebrospinal fluid.

d.

Measure pressure in the subarachnoid space.

ANS: B

In elective lumbar puncture (LP), pre-procedure computed tomography results are reviewed for evidence of brain shift to rule out increased intracranial pressure. The purpose of the LP procedure itself is to measure pressure in the subarachnoid space; obtain CSF for visualization and laboratory examination; and inject anesthetic, diagnostic, or therapeutic agents. CT will not do these things.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1109

OBJ: Effectively assist health care providers with angiogram, cardiac catheterization, intravenous (IV) pyelogram, bone marrow aspiration/biopsy, lumbar puncture, paracentesis, bronchoscopy, and endoscopy. TOP: Lumbar Puncture

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. The patient is a 56-year-old man who has terminal cirrhosis and severe ascites. He is lethargic but is demonstrating signs of discomfort and respiratory distress. The physician has spoken with the patients wife and has obtained consent to perform an abdominal paracentesis on the patient. After the physician leaves to prepare for the procedure, the wife asks the nurse whether the procedure is really necessary. The nurse should respond by saying this:

a.

is the first step in the patients recovery.

b.

may help the patient feel better.

c.

is needed to detect increased intracranial pressure.

d.

is needed to analyze pleural fluid.

ANS: B

The patient is diagnosed as terminal. Paracentesis is a palliative measure used to provide temporary relief of abdominal and respiratory discomfort caused by severe ascites. Intracranial pressure is assessed with computed tomography. Thoracentesis, not paracentesis, is performed to analyze or remove pleural fluid.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1111

OBJ: Effectively assist health care providers with angiogram, cardiac catheterization, intravenous (IV) pyelogram, bone marrow aspiration/biopsy, lumbar puncture, paracentesis, bronchoscopy, and endoscopy. TOP: Abdominal Paracentesis

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

9. Which is the appropriate patient position for a lumbar puncture?

a.

Prone

b.

Supine

c.

Sims

d.

Lateral recumbent

ANS: D

Position the patient in a lateral recumbent (fetal) position with the head and neck flexed. This provides spinal column full curvature. The spinal column is flexed as much as possible to allow maximal space between vertebrae.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1113

OBJ: Effectively assist health care providers with angiogram, cardiac catheterization, intravenous (IV) pyelogram, bone marrow aspiration/biopsy, lumbar puncture, paracentesis, bronchoscopy, and endoscopy. TOP: Positioning for Lumbar Puncture

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

10. In which position is the patient usually placed for a thoracentesis?

a.

Dorsal recumbent position

b.

Supine with the arms over the head

c.

Sims position on the affected side

d.

Sitting and leaning over a bedside table

ANS: D

Place the patient in the orthopneic position (upright position with arms and shoulders raised and supported on a padded over-bed table). If the patient is unable to tolerate this position, assist the patient to a side-lying position with the affected lung positioned upward. This expands the intercostal space for needle insertions.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1113

OBJ: Effectively assist health care providers with angiogram, cardiac catheterization, intravenous (IV) pyelogram, bone marrow aspiration/biopsy, lumbar puncture, paracentesis, bronchoscopy, and endoscopy. TOP: Positioning for Thoracentesis

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

11. When explaining about a lumbar puncture, the nurse informs the patient that during the procedure, he or she will be asked to:

a.

remain very still.

b.

cough during the fluid aspiration.

c.

change position.

d.

breathe deeply during the needle insertion.

ANS: A

Emphasize the importance of remaining immobile during the procedure to prevent trauma, especially with the lumbar puncture, because sudden movement is a risk for spinal cord nerve root damage. Also, instruct the patient not to cough, sneeze, or breathe deeply during the procedure because these actions increase the risks for needle displacement and damage to other structures.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1113

OBJ: Effectively assist health care providers with angiogram, cardiac catheterization, intravenous (IV) pyelogram, bone marrow aspiration/biopsy, lumbar puncture, paracentesis, bronchoscopy, and endoscopy. TOP: Lumbar Puncture

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

12. When explaining what to expect during a bronchoscopy, the nurse informs the patient that:

a.

an anesthetic solution will be swallowed.

b.

the tube will be passed through the nose.

c.

nothing will be given by mouth for 2 to 3 hours before.

d.

no food or fluid will be provided until the gag reflex returns.

ANS: D

Do not allow the patient to eat or drink until the tracheobronchial anesthesia has worn off and the gag reflex has returnedusually for 2 hours. Instruct the patient not to swallow the local anesthetic. The bronchoscope is introduced into the mouth, to the pharynx, to pass through the glottis. The patient should have taken nothing by mouth for at least 8 hours before a bronchoscopy.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1117

OBJ: Effectively assist health care providers with angiogram, cardiac catheterization, intravenous (IV) pyelogram, bone marrow aspiration/biopsy, lumbar puncture, paracentesis, bronchoscopy, and endoscopy. TOP: Bronchoscopy

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

13. The physician needs to visually examine a patients esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order:

a.

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP).

b.

esophagoscopy.

c.

esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD).

d.

proctoscopy.

ANS: C

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) permits visualization of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum in a single examination. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is performed for visualization of the hepatobiliary tree and pancreatic ducts. Esophagoscopy is used to examine the esophagus only. Proctoscopy offers a visual examination of the lower gastrointestinal tract.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1118

OBJ: Effectively assist health care providers with angiogram, cardiac catheterization, intravenous (IV) pyelogram, bone marrow aspiration/biopsy, lumbar puncture, paracentesis, bronchoscopy, and endoscopy. TOP: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. A patient who is a candidate for an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy has:

a.

been NPO for 8 hours.

b.

evident respiratory distress.

c.

active gastrointestinal bleeding.

d.

an esophageal diverticulum.

ANS: A

Verify that the patient has been NPO for at least 8 hours. Evident respiratory distress will increase risk, and the procedure may have to be delayed. This test is contraindicated in patients with severe upper gastrointestinal tract bleed, Zenkers diverticulum, or a large aortic aneurysm.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1120

OBJ: Effectively assist health care providers with angiogram, cardiac catheterization, intravenous (IV) pyelogram, bone marrow aspiration/biopsy, lumbar puncture, paracentesis, bronchoscopy, and endoscopy. TOP: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

15. For an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, a nurse should:

a.

remove the patients dentures.

b.

suction the patient every 5 minutes.

c.

place the patient in high-Fowlers position.

d.

provide fluids immediately after the test is finished.

ANS: A

Remove the patients dentures and other dental appliances to prevent dislodgement of dental structures during the intubation phase. Position the tip of the cannula in the patients mouth for easy access to drain oral secretions; suction as needed. Help the patient to maintain left lateral Sims position. Instruct the patient not to eat or drink after the procedure until the gag reflex returns, which is usually about 2 hours after the procedure.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1120

OBJ: Effectively assist health care providers with angiogram, cardiac catheterization, intravenous (IV) pyelogram, bone marrow aspiration/biopsy, lumbar puncture, paracentesis, bronchoscopy, and endoscopy. TOP: Gastrointestinal Endoscopy

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

16. During an electrocardiogram, the patient should anticipate that:

a.

chest pain may occur.

b.

the electrode sites will be cleaned with alcohol.

c.

talking and moving around will be allowed.

d.

the electrodes are attached with ties or rubber straps.

ANS: B

Clean and prepare the skin; wipe the sites with alcohol to help remove oils that would prevent adherence of the electrodes. Although the procedure is painless, it is important to document and note whether the patient is experiencing any chest discomfort during the procedure. Instruct the patient to lie still without talking. Electrodes are self-sticking.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1124

OBJ: Perform appropriate physical and psychosocial assessments before, during, and after diagnostic procedures. TOP: Electrocardiogram (ECG)

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

17. The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent a cardiac catheterization. The sheaths have just been removed. You should assess the patient carefully for what potential complication?

a.

Vasovagal reaction

b.

Hypertension

c.

Tachycardia

d.

Allergic reaction

ANS: A

Before removing the catheter sheath, check the health care providers orders for instructions on treating a vasovagal reaction. Manual pressure applied to the groin/femoral area can stimulate the baroreceptors and cause a vasovagal reaction in which the patient becomes bradycardic and hypotensive. Vasovagal reactions are usually brief and self-limited. When applying pressure to the groin after sheath removal, be alert for a vasovagal reaction and be prepared to treat it by lowering the head of the bed to the flat position and giving a bolus of IV fluids.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1107

OBJ: Perform appropriate physical and psychosocial assessments before, during, and after diagnostic procedures. TOP: Cardiac Catheterization

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

18. You are caring for a patient who has received moderate sedation for a procedure at the bedside. Which task can you delegate to the nurse assistant during this procedure?

a.

Assessing sedation score

b.

Obtaining blood pressure

c.

Monitoring respiratory rate

d.

Recording urine output

ANS: D

The task of assisting with IV moderate sedation, including the pre-procedure assessment, cannot be delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP). In most agencies, an RN or health care provider assesses and monitors a patients level of sedation, airway patency, and level of consciousness. Roles in monitoring depend on scope-of-practice guidelines as determined by state regulations (see agency policy). You could delegate to assistive personnel the task of recording urine output.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1099

OBJ: Describe the health care team collaboration and teamwork required before, during, and after procedures, including delegation to nursing assistive personnel. TOP: Conscious Sedation

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1. The patient will be undergoing moderate intravenous (IV) sedation. The nurse needs to assess which of the following during the procedure? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Airway compromise

b.

Hemodynamic instability

c.

Agitation

d.

Combativeness

ANS: A, B, C, D

Patient risks during IV sedation include hypoventilation, airway compromise, hemodynamic instability, and/or altered levels of consciousness that include an overly depressed level of consciousness or agitation and combativeness. Emergency equipment appropriate for the patients age and size and staff with skill in airway management, oxygen delivery, and use of resuscitation equipment are essential. During and after the procedure, patients need continuous monitoring of vital signs, oxygen saturation, heart rhythm, lung sounds, and level of consciousness.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1102

OBJ: Demonstrate understanding of nursing responsibilities related to the use of intravenous sedation during diagnostic procedures. TOP: Moderate Sedation

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. The patient has undergone a cardiac catheterization. It has been 2 hours since the catheter and sheath have been removed. Which of the following would be a concern for the nurse recovering the patient after the procedure?(Select all that apply.)

a.

Swelling and hardness at the catheter insertion site

b.

Complaints of itching and urticaria

c.

Urine output less than 30 mL/hour

d.

Low back pain radiating to both sides of the body

ANS: A, B, C, D

If hematoma or hemorrhage is present at the catheter insertion site, apply pressure over the insertion site, and notify the health care provider or physician if interventions do not stop the bleeding, or if the patient demonstrates symptoms of acute blood loss (hypotension, tachycardia). If the patient has an allergic reaction to contrast medium manifested by symptoms of flushing, itching, and urticaria, continue monitoring the patient and assess for anaphylaxis. Notify the health care provider. Renal toxicity from contrast can be detected by monitoring intake and output. Urine output of less than 30 mL/hour is a sign of renal toxicity. Low back pain radiating to both sides of the body is a hallmark sign of retroperitoneal bleeding.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: Text reference: p. 1108

OBJ: Perform appropriate physical and psychosocial assessments before, during, and after diagnostic procedures. TOP: Reaction to IV Dye

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. Both aspiration and biopsy diagnose and differentiate which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Leukemia

b.

Certain malignancies

c.

Heart disease

d.

Thrombocytopenia/anemia

ANS: A, B, D

Both aspiration and biopsy diagnose and differentiate leukemia, certain malignancies, anemia, and thrombocytopenia. Heart disease is not diagnosed with these studies.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: Text reference: p. 1109

OBJ: Identify physiological indications for diagnostic procedures.

TOP: Bone marrow Biopsy/Aspiration KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just undergone a bronchoscopy and has been in recovery for the last 15 minutes. The nurse should be especially watchful for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

a.

Return of the gag reflex

b.

Laryngospasm

c.

Respiratory status

d.

Facial or neck crepitus

ANS: B, C, D

Laryngospasm with bronchospasm evidenced by sudden, severe shortness of breath is an unexpected and potentially lethal outcome. Call the health care provider or physician immediately, prepare emergency resuscitation equipment, and anticipate a possible cricothyrotomy. Observe respiratory status closely, particularly for facial or neck crepitus. This is an early sign of bronchial perforation. The gag reflex does not normally return until 2 hours after the procedure.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: Text reference: p. 1118

OBJ: Perform appropriate physical and psychosocial assessments before, during, and after diagnostic procedures. TOP: Evaluation of Patient Undergoing Bronchoscopy

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

COMPLETION

1. _____________________ is often used for diagnostic or surgical procedures that do not require complete anesthesia in acute care, surgical care, and outpatient care settings.

ANS:

Intravenous sedation

Intravenous sedation is often used for diagnostic or surgical procedures that do not require complete anesthesia in acute care, surgical care, and outpatient care settings.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Text reference: p. 1099

OBJ: Demonstrate understanding of nursing responsibilities related to the use of IV sedation during the diagnostic/surgical procedure. TOP: Intravenous Sedation

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. _____________________ apply manual compression to prevent bleeding at the arterial site.

ANS:

Vascular closure devices

The use of a vascular closure device is now common after procedures involving an arteriotomy. These devices apply manual compression to prevent bleeding at the arterial site.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Text reference: p. 1107

OBJ: Perform appropriate physical and psychological assessments before, during, and after related procedures. TOP: Vascular Closure Devices

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. _____________ is a drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients respond purposefully to verbal commands, either alone or accompanied by light tactile stimulation. In addition, no interventions are required to maintain a patent airway, and spontaneous ventilation is adequate.

ANS:

Moderate sedation

Moderate sedation/analgesia produces a minimally depressed level of consciousness induced by the administration of pharmacological agents in which a patient retains a continuous and independent ability to maintain protective reflexes and a patent airway and is aroused by physical or verbal stimulation.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Text reference: p. 1099

OBJ: Perform appropriate physical and psychological assessments before, during, and after related procedures. TOP: Moderate Sedation

KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

4. An _______________ permits visualization of the vasculature of an organ and the organs arterial system.

ANS:

arteriogram (angiogram)

An arteriogram (angiogram) permits visualization of the vasculature and arterial system of an organ.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Text reference: p. 1103

OBJ: Identify physiological indications for diagnostic procedures.

TOP: Arteriogram (Angiogram) KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

5. A specialized form of angiography in which a catheter is inserted into the left or right side of the heart via a major peripheral vessel to study pressures within the heart, cardiac volumes, valvular function, and patency of coronary arteries is known as ______________.

ANS:

cardiac catheterization

Cardiac catheterization is a specialized form of angiography in which a catheter is inserted into the left or right side of the heart via a major peripheral vessel. This test studies pressures within the heart, cardiac volumes, valvular function, and patency of coronary arteries.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Text reference: p. 1103

OBJ: Identify physiological indications for diagnostic procedures.

TOP: Cardiac Catheterization KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

6. ____________ are sterile invasive procedures involving the removal of body fluids or tissue for diagnostic procedures.

ANS:

Aspirations

Aspirations are sterile invasive procedures involving the removal of body fluids or tissue for diagnostic procedures. Informed consent is required for these invasive procedures.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Text reference: p. 1109

OBJ: Identify physiological indications for diagnostic procedures.

TOP: Aspirations KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

7. The removal of a small amount of the liquid organic material in the medullary canals of selected bones, in particular the sternum and the posterior superior iliac crests in adults, is known as _______________.

ANS:

bone marrow aspiration

Bone marrow aspiration is the removal of a small amount of the liquid organic material in the medullary canals of selected bones, in particular the sternum and the posterior superior iliac crests in adults.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Text reference: p. 1109

OBJ: Identify physiological indications for diagnostic procedures.

TOP: Bone Marrow Aspiration KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. A _____________ involves the introduction of a needle into the subarachnoid space of the spinal column. The purpose of this test is to measure pressure in the subarachnoid space; obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for visualization and laboratory examination; and inject anesthetic, diagnostic, or therapeutic agents.

ANS:

lumbar puncture (LP)

A lumbar puncture (LP), called a spinal puncture or spinal tap, involves the introduction of a needle into the subarachnoid space of the spinal column. The purpose of this test is to measure pressure in the subarachnoid space; obtain CSF for visualization and laboratory examination; and inject anesthetic, diagnostic, or therapeutic agents.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: Text reference: p. 1109

OBJ: Identify physiological indications for diagnostic procedures.

TOP: Lumbar Puncture KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment

MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Leave a Reply