Chapter 62 Nursing School Test Banks

 

1.

A patient is brought to the emergency department from the site of a chemical fire, where he suffered a burn that involves the epidermis, dermis, and the muscle and bone of the right arm. On inspection, the skin appears charred. Based on these assessment findings, what is the depth of the burn on the patients arm?

A)

Superficial partial-thickness

B)

Deep partial-thickness

C)

Full partial-thickness

D)

Full-thickness

Ans:

D

Feedback:

A full-thickness burn involves total destruction of the epidermis and dermis and, in some cases, underlying tissue as well. Wound color ranges widely from white to red, brown, or black. The burned area is painless because the nerve fibers are destroyed. The wound can appear leathery; hair follicles and sweat glands are destroyed. Edema may also be present. Superficial partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and possibly a portion of the dermis; the patient will experience pain that is soothed by cooling. Deep partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis, upper dermis, and portion of the deeper dermis; the patient will complain of pain and sensitivity to cold air. Full partial thickness is not a depth of burn.

2.

The current phase of a patients treatment for a burn injury prioritizes wound care, nutritional support, and prevention of complications such as infection. Based on these care priorities, the patient is in what phase of burn care?

A)

Emergent

B)

Immediate resuscitative

C)

Acute

D)

Rehabilitation

Ans:

C

Feedback:

The acute or intermediate phase of burn care follows the emergent/resuscitative phase and begins 48 to 72 hours after the burn injury. During this phase, attention is directed toward continued assessment and maintenance of respiratory and circulatory status, fluid and electrolyte balance, and gastrointestinal function. Infection prevention, burn wound care (i.e., wound cleaning, topical antibacterial therapy, wound dressing, dressing changes, wound dbridement, and wound grafting), pain management, and nutritional support are priorities at this stage. Priorities during the emergent or immediate resuscitative phase include first aid, prevention of shock and respiratory distress, detection and treatment of concomitant injuries, and initial wound assessment and care. The priorities during the rehabilitation phase include prevention of scars and contractures, rehabilitation, functional and cosmetic reconstruction, and psychosocial counseling.

3.

A patient in the emergent/resuscitative phase of a burn injury has had blood work and arterial blood gases drawn. Upon analysis of the patients laboratory studies, the nurse will expect the results to indicate what?

A)

Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit, and metabolic acidosis

B)

Hypokalemia, hypernatremia, decreased hematocrit, and metabolic acidosis

C)

Hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, decreased hematocrit, and metabolic alkalosis

D)

Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit, and metabolic alkalosis

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Fluid and electrolyte changes in the emergent/resuscitative phase of a burn injury include hyperkalemia related to the release of potassium into the extracellular fluid, hyponatremia from large amounts of sodium lost in trapped edema fluid, hemoconcentration that leads to an increased hematocrit, and loss of bicarbonate ions that results in metabolic acidosis.

4.

A patient has experienced an electrical burn and has developed thick eschar over the burn site. Which of the following topical antibacterial agents will the nurse expect the physician to order for the wound?

A)

Silver sulfadiazine 1% (Silvadene) water-soluble cream

B)

Mafenide acetate 10% (Sulfamylon) hydrophilic-based cream

C)

Silver nitrate 0.5% aqueous solution

D)

Acticoat

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Mafenide acetate 10% hydrophilic-based cream is the agent of choice when there is a need to penetrate thick eschar. Silver products do not penetrate eschar; Acticoat is a type of silver dressing.

5.

An occupational health nurse is called to the floor of a factory where a worker has sustained a flash burn to the right arm. The nurse arrives and the flames have been extinguished. The next step is to cool the burn. How should the nurse cool the burn?

A)

Apply ice to the site of the burn for 5 to 10 minutes.

B)

Wrap the patients affected extremity in ice until help arrives.

C)

Apply an oil-based substance or butter to the burned area until help arrives.

D)

Wrap cool towels around the affected extremity intermittently.

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Once the burn has been sustained, the application of cool water is the best first-aid measure. Soaking the burn area intermittently in cool water or applying cool towels gives immediate and striking relief from pain, and limits local tissue edema and damage. However, never apply ice directly to the burn, never wrap the person in ice, and never use cold soaks or dressings for longer than several minutes; such procedures may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in people with large burns. Butter is contraindicated.

6.

An emergency department nurse has just admitted a patient with a burn. What characteristic of the burn will primarily determine whether the patient experiences a systemic response to this injury?

A)

The length of time since the burn

B)

The location of burned skin surfaces

C)

The source of the burn

D)

The total body surface area (TBSA) affected by the burn

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Systemic effects are a result of several variables. However, TBSA and wound severity are considered the major factors that affect the presence or absence of systemic effects.

7.

A nurse on a burn unit is caring for a patient in the acute phase of burn care. While performing an assessment during this phase of burn care, the nurse recognizes that airway obstruction related to upper airway edema may occur up to how long after the burn injury?

A)

2 days

B)

3 days

C)

5 days

D)

1 week

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Airway obstruction caused by upper airway edema can take as long as 48 hours to develop. Changes detected by x-ray and arterial blood gases may occur as the effects of resuscitative fluid and the chemical reaction of smoke ingredients with lung tissues become apparent.

8.

A patient has sustained a severe burn injury and is thought to have an impaired intestinal mucosal barrier. Since this patient is considered at an increased risk for infection, what intervention will best assist in avoiding increased intestinal permeability and prevent early endotoxin translocation?

A)

Early enteral feeding

B)

Administration of prophylactic antibiotics

C)

Bowel cleansing procedures

D)

Administration of stool softeners

Ans:

A

Feedback:

If the intestinal mucosa receives some type of protection against permeability change, infection could be avoided. Early enteral feeding is one step to help avoid this increased intestinal permeability and prevent early endotoxin translocation. Antibiotics are seldom prescribed prophylactically because of the risk of promoting resistant strains of bacteria. A bowel cleansing procedure would not be ordered for this patient. The administration of stool softeners would not assist in avoiding increased intestinal permeability and prevent early endotoxin translocation.

9.

A patient has been admitted to a burn intensive care unit with extensive full-thickness burns over 25% of the body. After ensuring cardiopulmonary stability, what would be the nurses immediate, priority concern when planning this patients care?

A)

Fluid status

B)

Risk of infection

C)

Nutritional status

D)

Psychosocial coping

Ans:

A

Feedback:

During the early phase of burn care, the nurse is most concerned with fluid resuscitation, to correct large-volume fluid loss through the damaged skin. Infection control and early nutritional support are important, but fluid resuscitation is an immediate priority. Coping is a higher priority later in the recovery period.

10.

The nurse is preparing the patient for mechanical dbridement and informs the patient that this will involve which of the following procedures?

A)

A spontaneous separation of dead tissue from the viable tissue

B)

Removal of eschar until the point of pain and bleeding occurs

C)

Shaving of burned skin layers until bleeding, viable tissue is revealed

D)

Early closure of the wound

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Mechanical dbridementcan be achieved through the use of surgical scissors, scalpels, or forceps to remove the eschar until the point of pain and bleeding occurs. Mechanical dbridement can also be accomplished through the use of topical enzymatic dbridement agents. The spontaneous separation of dead tissue from the viable tissue is an example of natural dbridement. Shaving the burned skin layers and early wound closure are examples of surgical dbridement.

11.

A patient with a partial-thickness burn injury had Biobrane applied 2 weeks ago. The nurse notices that the Biobrane is separating from the burn wound. What is the nurses most appropriate intervention?

A)

Reinforce the Biobrane dressing with another piece of Biobrane.

B)

Remove the Biobrane dressing and apply a new dressing.

C)

Trim away the separated Biobrane.

D)

Notify the physician for further emergency-related orders.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

As the Biobrane gradually separates, it is trimmed, leaving a healed wound. When the Biobrane dressing adheres to the wound, the wound remains stable and the Biobrane can remain in place for 3 to 4 weeks. There is no need to reinforce the Biobrane nor to remove it and apply a new dressing. There is not likely any need to notify the physician for further orders.

12.

An emergency department nurse learns from the paramedics that they are transporting a patient who has suffered injury from a scald from a hot kettle. What variables will the nurse consider when determining the depth of burn?

A)

The causative agent

B)

The patients preinjury health status

C)

The patients prognosis for recovery

D)

The circumstances of the accident

Ans:

A

Feedback:

The following factors are considered in determining the depth of a burn: how the injury occurred, causative agent (such as flame or scalding liquid), temperature of the burning agent, duration of contact with the agent, and thickness of the skin. The patients preinjury status, circumstances of the accident, and prognosis for recovery are important, but are not considered when determining the depth of the burn.

13.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained a deep partial-thickness burn injury. In prioritizing the nursing diagnoses for the plan of care, the nurse will give the highest priority to what nursing diagnosis?

A)

Activity Intolerance

B)

Anxiety

C)

Ineffective Coping

D)

Acute Pain

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Pain is inevitable during recovery from any burn injury. Pain in the burn patient has been described as one of the most severe causes of acute pain. Management of the often-severe pain is one of the most difficult challenges facing the burn team. While the other nursing diagnoses listed are valid, the presence of pain may contribute to these diagnoses. Management of the patients pain is the priority, as it may have a direct correlation to the other listed nursing diagnoses.

14.

A triage nurse in the emergency department (ED) receives a phone call from a frantic father who saw his 4-year-old child tip a pot of boiling water onto her chest. The father has called an ambulance. What would the nurse in the ED receiving the call instruct the father to do?

A)

Cover the burn with ice and secure with a towel.

B)

Apply butter to the area that is burned.

C)

Immerse the child in a cool bath.

D)

Avoid touching the burned area under any circumstances.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

After the flames or heat source have been removed or extinguished, the burned area and adherent clothing are soaked with cool water briefly to cool the wound and halt the burning process. Cool water is the best first-aid measure. Ice and butter are contraindicated. Appropriate first aid necessitates touching the burn.

15.

A nurse is teaching a patient with a partial-thickness wound how to wear his elastic pressure garment. How would the nurse instruct the patient to wear this garment?

A)

4 to 6 hours a day for 6 months

B)

During waking hours for 2 to 3 months after the injury

C)

Continuously

D)

At night while sleeping for a year after the injury

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Elastic pressure garments are worn continuously (i.e., 23 hours a day).

16.

A patient is brought to the ED by paramedics, who report that the patient has partial-thickness burns on the chest and legs. The patient has also suffered smoke inhalation. What is the priority in the care of a patient who has been burned and suffered smoke inhalation?

A)

Pain

B)

Fluid balance

C)

Anxiety and fear

D)

Airway management

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Systemic threats from a burn are the greatest threat to life. The ABCs of all trauma care apply during the early postburn period. While all options should be addressed, pain, fluid balance, and anxiety and fear do not take precedence over airway management.

17.

A patient arrives in the emergency department after being burned in a house fire. The patients burns cover the face and the left forearm. What extent of burns does the patient most likely have?

A)

13%

B)

25%

C)

9%

D)

18%

Ans:

D

Feedback:

When estimating the percentage of body area or burn surface area that has been burned, the Rule of Nines is used: the face is 9%, and the forearm is 9% for a total of 18% in this patient.

18.

A nurse is caring for a patient in the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury. During this phase, the nurse should monitor for evidence of what alteration in laboratory values?

A)

Sodium deficit

B)

Decreased prothrombin time (PT)

C)

Potassium deficit

D)

Decreased hematocrit

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Anticipated fluid and electrolyte changes that occur during the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury include sodium deficit, potassium excess, base-bicarbonate deficit, and elevated hematocrit. PT does not typically decrease.

19.

A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient with a partial-thickness burn, and determines that an appropriate goal is to maintain position of joints in alignment. What is the best rationale for this intervention?

A)

To prevent neuropathies

B)

To prevent wound breakdown

C)

To prevent contractures

D)

To prevent heterotopic ossification

Ans:

C

Feedback:

To prevent the complication of contractures, the nurse will establish a goal to maintain position of joints in alignment. Gentle range of motion exercises and a consult to PT and OT for exercises and positioning recommendations are also appropriate interventions for the prevention of contractures. Joint alignment is not maintained specifically for preventing neuropathy, wound breakdown, or heterotopic ossification.

20.

A patients burns have required a homograft. During the nurses most recent assessment, the nurse observes that the graft is newly covered with purulent exudate. What is the nurses most appropriate response?

A)

Perform mechanical dbridement to remove the exudate and prevent further infection.

B)

Inform the primary care provider promptly because the graft may need to be removed.

C)

Perform range of motion exercises to increase perfusion to the graft site and facilitate healing.

D)

Document this finding as an expected phase of graft healing.

Ans:

B

Feedback:

An infected graft may need to be removed, thus the care provider should be promptly informed. ROM exercises will not resolve this problem and the nurse would not independently perform dbridement.

21.

A nurse who is taking care of a patient with burns is asked by a family member why the patient is losing so much weight. The patient is currently in the intermediate phase of recovery. What would be the nurses most appropriate response to the family member?

A)

Hes on a calorie-restricted diet in order to divert energy to wound healing.

B)

His body has consumed his fat deposits for fuel because his calorie intake is lower than normal.

C)

He actually hasnt lost weight. Instead, theres been a change in the distribution of his body fat.

D)

He lost many fluids while he was being treated in the emergency phase of burn care.

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Patients lose a great deal of weight during recovery from severe burns. Reserve fat deposits are catabolized as a result of hypermetabolism. Patients are not placed on a calorie restriction during recovery and fluid losses would not account for weight loss later in the recovery period. Changes in the overall distribution of body fat do not occur.

22.

A nurse has reported for a shift at a busy burns and plastics unit in a large university hospital. Which patient is most likely to have life-threatening complications?

A)

A 4-year-old scald victim burned over 24% of the body

B)

A 27-year-old male burned over 36% of his body in a car accident

C)

A 39-year-old female patient burned over 18% of her body

D)

A 60-year-old male burned over 16% of his body in a brush fire

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Young children and the elderly continue to have increased morbidity and mortality when compared to other age groups with similar injuries and present a challenge for burn care. This is an important factor when determining the severity of injury and possible outcome for the patient.

23.

A patient is brought to the emergency department with a burn injury. The nurse knows that the first systemic event after a major burn injury is what?

A)

Hemodynamic instability

B)

Gastrointestinal hypermotility

C)

Respiratory arrest

D)

Hypokalemia

Ans:

A

Feedback:

The initial systemic event after a major burn injury is hemodynamic instability, which results from loss of capillary integrity and a subsequent shift of fluid, sodium, and protein from the intravascular space into the interstitial spaces. This precedes GI changes. Respiratory arrest may or may not occur, largely depending on the presence or absence of smoke inhalation. Hypokalemia does not take place in the initial phase of recovery.

24.

A patient with severe burns is admitted to the intensive care unit to stabilize and begin fluid resuscitation before transport to the burn center. The nurse should monitor the patient closely for what signs of the onset of burn shock?

A)

Confusion

B)

High fever

C)

Decreased blood pressure

D)

Sudden agitation

Ans:

C

Feedback:

As fluid loss continues and vascular volume decreases, cardiac output continues to decrease and the blood pressure drops, marking the onset of burn shock. Shock and the accompanying hemodynamic changes are not normally accompanied by confusion, fever, or agitation.

25.

An emergency department nurse has just received a patient with burn injuries brought in by ambulance. The paramedics have started a large-bore IV and covered the burn in cool towels. The burn is estimated as covering 24% of the patients body. How should the nurse best address the pathophysiologic changes resulting from major burns during the initial burn-shock period?

A)

Administer IV fluids

B)

Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics

C)

Administer IV potassium chloride

D)

Administer packed red blood cells

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Pathophysiologic changes resulting from major burns during the initial burn-shock period include massive fluid losses. Addressing these losses is a major priority in the initial phase of treatment. Antibiotics and PRBCs are not normally administered. Potassium chloride would exacerbate the patients hyperkalemia.

26.

A patients burns are estimated at 36% of total body surface area; fluid resuscitation has been ordered in the emergency department. After establishing intravenous access, the nurse should anticipate the administration of what fluid?

A)

0.45% NaCl with 20 mEq/L KCl

B)

0.45% NaCl with 40 mEq/L KCl

C)

Normal saline

D)

Lactated Ringers

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Fluid resuscitation with lactated Ringers (LR) should be initiated using the American Burn Associations (ABA) fluid resuscitation formulas. LR is the crystalloid of choice because its composition and osmolality most closely resemble plasma and because use of normal saline is associated with hyperchloremic acidosis. Potassium chloride solutions would exacerbate the hyperkalemia that occurs following burn injuries.

27.

A patient is admitted to the burn unit after being transported from a facility 1000 miles away. The patient has burns to the groin area and circumferential burns to both upper thighs. When assessing the patients legs distal to the wound site, the nurse should be cognizant of the risk of what complication?

A)

Ischemia

B)

Referred pain

C)

Cellulitis

D)

Venous thromboembolism (VTE)

Ans:

A

Feedback:

As edema increases, pressure on small blood vessels and nerves in the distal extremities causes an obstruction of blood flow and consequent ischemia. This complication is similar to compartment syndrome. Referred pain, cellulitis, and VTE are not noted complications that occur distal to the injury site.

28.

A patient experienced a 33% TBSA burn 72 hours ago. The nurse observes that the patients hourly urine output has been steadily increasing over the past 24 hours. How should the nurse best respond to this finding?

A)

Obtain an order to reduce the rate of the patients IV fluid infusion.

B)

Report the patients early signs of acute kidney injury (AKI).

C)

Recognize that the patient is experiencing an expected onset of diuresis.

D)

Administer sodium chloride as ordered to compensate for this fluid loss.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

As capillaries regain integrity, 48 or more hours after the burn, fluid moves from the interstitial to the intravascular compartment and diuresis begins. This is an expected development and does not require a reduction in the IV infusion rate or the administration of NaCl. Diuresis is not suggestive of AKI.

29.

A public health nurse has reviewed local data about the incidence and prevalence of burn injuries in the community. These data are likely to support what health promotion effort?

A)

Education about home safety

B)

Education about safe storage of chemicals

C)

Education about workplace health threats

D)

Education about safe driving

Ans:

A

Feedback:

A large majority of burns occur in the home setting; educational interventions should address this epidemiologic trend.

30.

A nurse is performing a home visit to a patient who is recovering following a long course of inpatient treatment for burn injuries. When performing this home visit, the nurse should do which of the following?

A)

Assess the patient for signs of electrolyte imbalances.

B)

Administer fluids as ordered.

C)

Assess the risk for injury recurrence.

D)

Assess the patients psychosocial state.

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Recovery from burns can be psychologically challenging; the nurses assessments must address this reality. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances are infrequent during the rehabilitation phase of recovery. Burns are not typically a health problem that tends to recur; the experience of being burned tends to foster vigilance.

31.

A patient has experienced burns to his upper thighs and knees. Following the application of new wound dressings, the nurse should perform what nursing action?

A)

Instruct the patient to keep the wound site in a dependent position.

B)

Administer PRN analgesia as ordered.

C)

Assess the patients peripheral pulses distal to the dressing.

D)

Assist with passive range of motion exercises to set the new dressing.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Dressings can impede circulation if they are wrapped too tightly. The peripheral pulses must be checked frequently and burned extremities elevated. Dependent positioning does not need to be maintained. PRN analgesics should be administered prior to the dressing change. ROM exercises do not normally follow a dressing change.

32.

A nurse is caring for a patient with burns who is in the later stages of the acute phase of recovery. The plan of nursing care should include which of the following nursing actions?

A)

Maintenance of bed rest to aid healing

B)

Choosing appropriate splints and functional devices

C)

Administration of beta adrenergic blockers

D)

Prevention of venous thromboembolism

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Prevention of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is an important factor in care. Early mobilization of the patient is important. The nurse monitors the splints and functional devices, but these are selected by occupational and physical therapists. The hemodynamic changes accompanying burns do not normally require the use of beta blockers.

33.

A patient is in the acute phase of a burn injury. One of the nursing diagnoses in the plan of care is Ineffective Coping Related to Trauma of Burn Injury. What interventions appropriately address this diagnosis? Select all that apply.

A)

Promote truthful communication.

B)

Avoid asking the patient to make decisions.

C)

Teach the patient coping strategies.

D)

Administer benzodiazepines as ordered.

E)

Provide positive reinforcement.

Ans:

A, C, E

Feedback:

The nurse can assist the patient to develop effective coping strategies by setting specific expectations for behavior, promoting truthful communication to build trust, helping the patient practice appropriate strategies, and giving positive reinforcement when appropriate. The patient may benefit from being able to make decisions regarding his or her care. Benzodiazepines may be needed for short-term management of anxiety, but they are not used to enhance coping.

34.

A patient who was burned in a workplace accident has completed the acute phase of treatment and the plan of care has been altered to prioritize rehabilitation. What nursing action should be prioritized during this phase of treatment?

A)

Monitoring fluid and electrolyte imbalances

B)

Providing education to the patient and family

C)

Treating infection

D)

Promoting thermoregulation

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Patient and family education is a priority during rehabilitation. There should be no fluid and electrolyte imbalances in the rehabilitation phase. The presence of impaired thermoregulation or infection would suggest that the patient is still in the acute phase of burn recovery.

35.

A burn patient is transitioning from the acute phase of the injury to the rehabilitation phase. The patient tells the nurse, I cant wait to have surgery to reconstruct my face so I look normal again. What would be the nurses best response?

A)

Thats something that you and your doctor will likely talk about after your scars mature.

B)

That is something for you to talk to your doctor about because its not a nursing responsibility.

C)

I know this is really important to you, but you have to realize that no one can make you look like you used to.

D)

Unfortunately, its likely that you will have most of these scars for the rest of your life.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Burn reconstruction is a treatment option after all scars have matured and is discussed within the first few years after injury. Even though this is not a nursing responsibility, the nurse should still respond appropriately to the patients query. It is true that the patient will not realistically look like he or she used to, but this does not instill hope.

36.

A patient who is in the acute phase of recovery from a burn injury has yet to experience adequate pain control. What pain management strategy is most likely to meet this patients needs?

A)

A patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) system

B)

Oral opioids supplemented by NSAIDs

C)

Distraction and relaxation techniques supplemented by NSAIDs

D)

A combination of benzodiazepines and topical anesthetics

Ans:

A

Feedback:

The goal of treatment is to provide a long-acting analgesic that will provide even coverage for this long-term discomfort. It is helpful to use escalating doses when initiating the medication to reach the level of pain control that is acceptable to the patient. The use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) gives control to the patient and achieves this goal. Patients cannot normally achieve adequate pain control without the use of opioids, and parenteral administration is usually required.

37.

The nurse caring for a patient who is recovering from full-thickness burns is aware of the patients risk for contracture and hypertrophic scarring. How can the nurse best mitigate this risk?

A)

Apply skin emollients as ordered after granulation has occurred.

B)

Keep injured areas immobilized whenever possible to promote healing.

C)

Administer oral or IV corticosteroids as ordered.

D)

Encourage physical activity and range of motion exercises.

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Exercise and the promotion of mobility can reduce the risk of contracture and hypertrophic scarring. Skin emollients are not normally used in the treatment of burns, and these do not prevent scarring. Steroids are not used to reduce scarring, as they also slow the healing process.

38.

While performing a patients ordered wound care for the treatment of a burn, the patient has made a series of sarcastic remarks to the nurse and criticized her technique. How should the nurse best interpret this patients behavior?

A)

The patient may be experiencing an adverse drug reaction that is affecting his cognition and behavior.

B)

The patient may be experiencing neurologic or psychiatric complications of his injuries.

C)

The patient may be experiencing inconsistencies in the care that he is being provided.

D)

The patient may be experiencing anger about his circumstances that he is deflecting toward the nurse.

Ans:

D

Feedback:

The patient may experience feelings of anger. The anger may be directed outward toward those who escaped unharmed or toward those who are now providing care. While drug reactions, complications, and frustrating inconsistencies in care cannot be automatically ruled out, it is not uncommon for anger to be directed at caregivers.

39.

A home care nurse is performing a visit to a patients home to perform wound care following the patients hospital treatment for severe burns. While interacting with the patient, the nurse should assess for evidence of what complication?

A)

Psychosis

B)

Post-traumatic stress disorder

C)

Delirium

D)

Vascular dementia

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is the most common psychiatric disorder in burn survivors, with a prevalence that may be as high as 45%. As a result, it is important for the nurse to assess for this complication of burn injuries. Psychosis, delirium, and dementia are not among the noted psychiatric and psychosocial complications of burns.

40.

A nurse who provides care on a burn unit is preparing to apply a patients ordered topical antibiotic ointment. What action should the nurse perform when administering this medication?

A)

Apply the new ointment without disturbing the existing layer of ointment.

B)

Apply the ointment using a sterile tongue depressor.

C)

Apply a layer of ointment approximately 1/16 inch thick.

D)

Gently irrigate the wound bed after applying the antibiotic ointment.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

After removing the old ointment from the wound bed, the nurse should apply a layer of ointment 1/16-inch thick using clean gloves. The wound would not be irrigated after application of new ointment.

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