Chapter 69 Nursing School Test Banks

 

1.

A patient with possible bacterial meningitis is admitted to the ICU. What assessment finding would the nurse expect for a patient with this diagnosis?

A)

Pain upon ankle dorsiflexion of the foot

B)

Neck flexion produces flexion of knees and hips

C)

Inability to stand with eyes closed and arms extended without swaying

D)

Numbness and tingling in the lower extremities

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Clinical manifestations of bacterial meningitis include a positive Brudzinskis sign. Neck flexion producing flexion of knees and hips correlates with a positive Brudzinskis sign. Positive Homans sign (pain upon dorsiflexion of the foot) and negative Rombergs sign (inability to stand with eyes closed and arms extended) are not expected assessment findings for the patient with bacterial meningitis. Peripheral neuropathy manifests as numbness and tingling in the lower extremities. Again, this would not be an initial assessment to rule out bacterial meningitis.

2.

The nurse is planning discharge education for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. The nurse knows to include information about factors that precipitate an attack. What would the nurse be correct in teaching the patient to avoid?

A)

Washing his face

B)

Exposing his skin to sunlight

C)

Using artificial tears

D)

Drinking large amounts of fluids

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Washing the face should be avoided if possible because this activity can trigger an attack of pain in a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. Using artificial tears would be an appropriate behavior. Exposing the skin to sunlight would not be harmful to this patient. Temperature extremes in beverages should be avoided.

3.

The nurse is caring for a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS). The patient tells the nurse the hardest thing to deal with is the fatigue. When teaching the patient how to reduce fatigue, what action should the nurse suggest?

A)

Taking a hot bath at least once daily

B)

Resting in an air-conditioned room whenever possible

C)

Increasing the dose of muscle relaxants

D)

Avoiding naps during the day

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Fatigue is a common symptom of patients with MS. Lowering the body temperature by resting in an air-conditioned room may relieve fatigue; however, extreme cold should be avoided. A hot bath or shower can increase body temperature, producing fatigue. Muscle relaxants, prescribed to reduce spasticity, can cause drowsiness and fatigue. Planning for frequent rest periods and naps can relieve fatigue. Other measures to reduce fatigue in the patient with MS include treating depression, using occupational therapy to learn energy conservation techniques, and reducing spasticity.

4.

A patient with Guillain-Barr syndrome has experienced a sharp decline in vital capacity. What is the nurses most appropriate action?

A)

Administer bronchodilators as ordered.

B)

Remind the patient of the importance of deep breathing and coughing exercises.

C)

Prepare to assist with intubation.

D)

Administer supplementary oxygen by nasal cannula.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

For the patient with Guillain-Barr syndrome, mechanical ventilation is required if the vital capacity falls, making spontaneous breathing impossible and tissue oxygenation inadequate. Each of the other listed actions is likely insufficient to meet the patients oxygenation needs.

5.

A patient diagnosed with Bells palsy is being cared for on an outpatient basis. During health education, the nurse should promote which of the following actions?

A)

Applying a protective eye shield at night

B)

Chewing on the affected side to prevent unilateral neglect

C)

Avoiding the use of analgesics whenever possible

D)

Avoiding brushing the teeth

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Corneal irritation and ulceration may occur if the eye is unprotected. While paralysis lasts, the involved eye must be protected. The patient should be encouraged to eat on the unaffected side, due to swallowing difficulties. Analgesics are used to control the facial pain. The patient should continue to provide self-care including oral hygiene.

6.

The nurse is working with a patient who is newly diagnosed with MS. What basic information should the nurse provide to the patient?

A)

MS is a progressive demyelinating disease of the nervous system.

B)

MS usually occurs more frequently in men.

C)

MS typically has an acute onset.

D)

MS is sometimes caused by a bacterial infection.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

MS is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system, characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord. The cause of MS is not known, and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

7.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a patient who has a recent diagnosis of MS. Which of the following should the nurse include in the patients care plan?

A)

Encourage patient to void every hour.

B)

Order a low-residue diet.

C)

Provide total assistance with all ADLs.

D)

Instruct the patient on daily muscle stretching.

Ans:

D

Feedback:

A patient diagnosed with MS should be encouraged to increase the fiber in his or her diet and void 30 minutes after drinking to help train the bladder. The patient should participate in daily muscle stretching to help alleviate and relax muscle spasms.

8.

A patient with metastatic cancer has developed trigeminal neuralgia and is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for pain relief. What principle applies to the administration of this medication?

A)

Tegretol is not known to have serious adverse effects.

B)

The patient should be monitored for bone marrow depression.

C)

Side effects of the medication include renal dysfunction.

D)

The medication should be first taken in the maximum dosage form to be effective.

Ans:

B

Feedback:

The anticonvulsant agents carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin) relieve pain in most patients diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia by reducing the transmission of impulses at certain nerve terminals. Side effects include nausea, dizziness, drowsiness, and aplastic anemia. Carbamazepine should be gradually increased until pain relief is obtained.

9.

A male patient presents to the clinic complaining of a headache. The nurse notes that the patient is guarding his neck and tells the nurse that he has stiffness in the neck area. The nurse suspects the patient may have meningitis. What is another well-recognized sign of this infection?

A)

Negative Brudzinskis sign

B)

Positive Kernigs sign

C)

Hyperpatellar reflex

D)

Sluggish pupil reaction

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Meningeal irritation results in a number of well-recognized signs commonly seen in meningitis, such as a positive Kernigs sign, a positive Brudzinskis sign, and photophobia. Hyperpatellar reflex and a sluggish pupil reaction are not commonly recognized signs of meningitis.

10.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with Bells palsy. The nurses plan of care should address what characteristic manifestation of this disease?

A)

Tinnitus

B)

Facial paralysis

C)

Pain at the base of the tongue

D)

Diplopia

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Bells palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis. It does not result in diplopia, pain at the base of the tongue, or tinnitus.

11.

The nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with Guillain-Barr syndrome is planning care with regard to the clinical manifestations associated this syndrome. The nurses communication with the patient should reflect the possibility of what sign or symptom of the disease?

A)

Intermittent hearing loss

B)

Tinnitus

C)

Tongue enlargement

D)

Vocal paralysis

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Guillain-Barr syndrome is a disorder of the vagus nerve. Clinical manifestations include vocal paralysis, dysphagia, and voice changes (temporary or permanent hoarseness). Hearing deficits, tinnitus, and tongue enlargement are not associated with the disease.

12.

The nurse is preparing to provide care for a patient diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. The nurse should know that the signs and symptoms of the disease are the result of what?

A)

Genetic dysfunction

B)

Upper and lower motor neuron lesions

C)

Decreased conduction of impulses in an upper motor neuron lesion

D)

A lower motor neuron lesion

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a weakness of muscles, especially in the face and throat, caused by a lower neuron lesion at the myoneural junction. It is not a genetic disorder. A combined upper and lower neuron lesion generally occurs as a result of spinal injuries. A lesion involving cranial nerves and their axons in the spinal cord would cause decreased conduction of impulses at an upper motor neuron.

13.

A patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is being admitted to the unit. The nurse would expect what diagnostic test to be ordered for this patient?

A)

Cerebral angiography

B)

ABG analysis

C)

CT

D)

EEG

Ans:

D

Feedback:

The EEG reveals a characteristic pattern over the duration of CJD. A CT scan may be used to rule out disorders that may mimic the symptoms of CJD. ABGs would not be necessary until the later stages of CJD; they would not be utilized as a diagnostic test. Cerebral angiography is not used to diagnose CJD.

14.

To alleviate pain associated with trigeminal neuralgia, a patient is taking Tegretol (carbamazepine). What health education should the nurse provide to the patient before initiating this treatment?

A)

Concurrent use of calcium supplements is contraindicated.

B)

Blood levels of the drug must be monitored.

C)

The drug is likely to cause hyperactivity and agitation.

D)

Tegretol can cause tinnitus during the first few days of treatment.

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Side effects of Tegretol include nausea, dizziness, drowsiness, and aplastic anemia. The patient must also be monitored for bone marrow depression during long-term therapy. Skin discoloration, insomnia, and tinnitus are not side effects of Tegretol.

15.

A patient with herpes simplex virus encephalitis (HSV) has been admitted to the ICU. What medication would the nurse expect the physician to order for the treatment of this disease process?

A)

Cyclosporine (Neoral)

B)

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

C)

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

D)

Ampicillin (Prinicpen)

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Acyclovir (Zovirax) or ganciclovir (Cytovene), antiviral agents, are the medications of choice in the treatment of HSV. The mode of action is the inhibition of viral DNA replication. To prevent relapse, treatment would continue for up to 3 weeks. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant and antirheumatic. Cyclobenzaprine is a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant. Ampicillin, an antibiotic, is ineffective against viruses.

16.

A middle-aged woman has sought care from her primary care provider and undergone diagnostic testing that has resulted in a diagnosis of MS. What sign or symptom is most likely to have prompted the woman to seek care?

A)

Cognitive declines

B)

Personality changes

C)

Contractures

D)

Difficulty in coordination

Ans:

D

Feedback:

The primary symptoms of MS most commonly reported are fatigue, depression, weakness, numbness, difficulty in coordination, loss of balance, spasticity, and pain. Cognitive changes and contractures usually occur later in the disease.

17.

A nurse is planning the care of a 28-year-old woman hospitalized with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What approach would be most appropriate for the care and scheduling of diagnostic procedures for this patient?

A)

All at one time, to provide a longer rest period

B)

Before meals, to stimulate her appetite

C)

In the morning, with frequent rest periods

D)

Before bedtime, to promote rest

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Procedures should be spaced to allow for rest in between. Procedures should be avoided before meals, or the patient may be too exhausted to eat. Procedures should be avoided near bedtime if possible.

18.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of MS. To ensure the patients safety, what nursing action should be performed?

A)

Ensure that suction apparatus is set up at the bedside.

B)

Pad the patients bed rails.

C)

Maintain bed rest whenever possible.

D)

Provide several small meals each day.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Because of the patients risk of aspiration, it is important to have a suction apparatus at hand. Bed rest should be generally be minimized, not maximized, and there is no need to pad the patients bed rails or to provide multiple small meals.

19.

A 33-year-old patient presents at the clinic with complaints of weakness, incoordination, dizziness, and loss of balance. The patient is hospitalized and diagnosed with MS. What sign or symptom, revealed during the initial assessment, is typical of MS?

A)

Diplopia, history of increased fatigue, and decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes

B)

Flexor spasm, clonus, and negative Babinskis reflex

C)

Blurred vision, intention tremor, and urinary hesitancy

D)

Hyperactive abdominal reflexes and history of unsteady gait and episodic paresthesia in both legs

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Optic neuritis, leading to blurred vision, is a common early sign of MS, as is intention tremor (tremor when performing an activity). Nerve damage can cause urinary hesitancy. In MS, deep tendon reflexes are increased or hyperactive. A positive Babinskis reflex is found in MS. Abdominal reflexes are absent with MS.

20.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient with Guillain-Barr syndrome. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize for this patient?

A)

Using the incentive spirometer as prescribed

B)

Maintaining the patient on bed rest

C)

Providing aids to compensate for loss of vision

D)

Assessing frequently for loss of cognitive function

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Respiratory function can be maximized with incentive spirometry and chest physiotherapy. Nursing interventions toward enhancing physical mobility should be utilized. Nursing interventions are aimed at preventing a deep vein thrombosis. Guillain-Barr syndrome does not affect cognitive function or vision.

21.

A 69-year-old patient is brought to the ED by ambulance because a family member found him lying on the floor disoriented and lethargic. The physician suspects bacterial meningitis and admits the patient to the ICU. The nurse knows that risk factors for an unfavorable outcome include what? Select all that apply.

A)

Blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg

B)

Heart rate greater than 120 bpm

C)

Older age

D)

Low Glasgow Coma Scale

E)

Lack of previous immunizations

Ans:

B, C, D

Feedback:

Risks for an unfavorable outcome of meningitis include older age, a heart rate greater than 120 beats/minute, low Glasgow Coma Scale score, cranial nerve palsies, and a positive Gram stain 1 hour after presentation to the hospital. A BP greater than 140/90 mm Hg is indicative of hypertension, but is not necessarily related to poor outcomes related to meningitis. Immunizations are not normally relevant to the course of the disease.

22.

The critical care nurse is caring for 25-year-old man admitted to the ICU with a brain abscess. What is a priority nursing responsibility in the care of this patient?

A)

Maintaining the patients functional independence

B)

Providing health education

C)

Monitoring neurologic status closely

D)

Promoting mobility

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Vigilant neurologic monitoring is a key aspect of caring for a patient who has a brain abscess. This supersedes education, ADLs, and mobility, even though these are all valid and important aspects of nursing care.

23.

A patient is being admitted to the neurologic ICU with suspected herpes simplex virus encephalitis. What nursing action best addresses the patients complaints of headache?

A)

Initiating a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) of morphine sulfate

B)

Administering hydromorphone (Dilaudid) IV as needed

C)

Dimming the lights and reducing stimulation

D)

Distracting the patient with activity

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Comfort measures to reduce headache include dimming the lights, limiting noise and visitors, grouping nursing interventions, and administering analgesic agents. Opioid analgesic medications may mask neurologic symptoms; therefore, they are used cautiously. Non-opioid analgesics may be preferred. Distraction is unlikely to be effective, and may exacerbate the patients pain.

24.

A patient is admitted through the ED with suspected St. Louis encephalitis. The unique clinical feature of St. Louis encephalitis will make what nursing action a priority?

A)

Serial assessments of hemoglobin levels

B)

Blood glucose monitoring

C)

Close monitoring of fluid balance

D)

Assessment of pain along dermatomes

Ans:

C

Feedback:

A unique clinical feature of St. Louis encephalitis is SIADH with hyponatremia. As such, it is important to monitor the patients intake and output closely.

25.

The nurse is caring for a 77-year-old woman with MS. She states that she is very concerned about the progress of her disease and what the future holds. The nurse should know that elderly patients with MS are known to be particularly concerned about what variables? Select all that apply.

A)

Possible nursing home placement

B)

Pain associated with physical therapy

C)

Increasing disability

D)

Becoming a burden on the family

E)

Loss of appetite

Ans:

A, C, D

Feedback:

Elderly patients with MS are particularly concerned about increasing disability, family burden, marital concern, and the possible future need for nursing home care. Older adults with MS are not noted to have particular concerns regarding the pain of therapy or loss of appetite.

26.

You are the clinic nurse caring for a patient with a recent diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. The patient has begun treatment with pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon). What change in status would most clearly suggest a therapeutic benefit of this medication?

A)

Increased muscle strength

B)

Decreased pain

C)

Improved GI function

D)

Improved cognition

Ans:

A

Feedback:

The goal of treatment using pyridostigmine bromide is improvement of muscle strength and control of fatigue. The drug is not intended to treat pain, or cognitive or GI functions.

27.

The critical care nurse is admitting a patient in myasthenic crisis to the ICU. The nurse should prioritize what nursing action in the immediate care of this patient?

A)

Suctioning secretions

B)

Facilitating ABG analysis

C)

Providing ventilatory assistance

D)

Administering tube feedings

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Providing ventilatory assistance takes precedence in the immediate management of the patient with myasthenic crisis. It may be necessary to suction secretions and/or provide tube feedings, but they are not the priority for this patient. ABG analysis will be done, but this is not the priority.

28.

The nurse caring for a patient in ICU diagnosed with Guillain-Barr syndrome should prioritize monitoring for what potential complication?

A)

Impaired skin integrity

B)

Cognitive deficits

C)

Hemorrhage

D)

Autonomic dysfunction

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Based on the assessment data, potential complications that may develop include respiratory failure and autonomic dysfunction. Skin breakdown, decreased cognition, and hemorrhage are not complications of Guillain-Barr syndrome.

29.

The nurse is teaching a patient with Guillain-Barr syndrome about the disease. The patient asks how he can ever recover if demyelination of his nerves is occurring. What would be the nurses best response?

A)

Guillain-Barr spares the Schwann cell, which allows for remyelination in the recovery phase of the disease.

B)

In Guillain-Barr, Schwann cells replicate themselves before the disease destroys them, so remyelination is possible.

C)

I know you understand that nerve cells do not remyelinate, so the physician is the best one to answer your question.

D)

For some reason, in Guillain-Barr, Schwann cells become activated and take over the remyelination process.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Myelin is a complex substance that covers nerves, providing insulation and speeding the conduction of impulses from the cell body to the dendrites. The cell that produces myelin in the peripheral nervous system is the Schwann cell. In Guillain-Barr syndrome, the Schwann cell is spared, allowing for remyelination in the recovery phase of the disease. The nurse should avoid downplaying the patients concerns by wholly deferring to the physician.

30.

A patient diagnosed with myasthenia gravis has been hospitalized to receive plasmapheresis for a myasthenic exacerbation. The nurse knows that the course of treatment for plasmapheresis in a patient with myasthenia gravis is what?

A)

Every day for 1 week

B)

Determined by the patients response

C)

Alternate days for 10 days

D)

Determined by the patients weight

Ans:

B

Feedback:

The typical course of plasmapheresis consists of daily or alternate-day treatment, and the number of treatments is determined by the patients response.

31.

The nurse is discharging a patient home after surgery for trigeminal neuralgia. What advice should the nurse provide to this patient in order to reduce the risk of injury?

A)

Avoid watching television or using a computer for more than 1 hour at a time.

B)

Use OTC antibiotic eye drops for at least 14 days.

C)

Avoid rubbing the eye on the affected side of the face.

D)

Rinse the eye on the affected side with normal saline daily for 1 week.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

If the surgery results in sensory deficits to the affected side of the face, the patient is instructed not to rub the eye because the pain of a resulting injury will not be detected. There is no need to limit TV viewing or to rinse the eye daily. Antibiotics may or may not be prescribed, and these would not reduce the risk of injury.

32.

A patient diagnosed with Bells palsy is having decreased sensitivity to touch of the involved nerve. What should the nurse recommend to prevent atrophy of the muscles?

A)

Blowing up balloons

B)

Deliberately frowning

C)

Smiling repeatedly

D)

Whistling

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Facial exercises, such as wrinkling the forehead, blowing out the cheeks, and whistling, may be performed with the aid of a mirror to prevent muscle atrophy. Blowing up balloons, frowning, and smiling are not considered facial exercises.

33.

A patient with diabetes presents to the clinic and is diagnosed with a mononeuropathy. This patients nursing care should involve which of the following?

A)

Protection of the affected limb from injury

B)

Passive and active ROM exercises for the affected limb

C)

Education about improvements to glycemic control

D)

Interventions to prevent contractures

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Nursing care involves protection of the affected limb or area from injury, as well as appropriate patient teaching about mononeuropathy and its treatment. Nursing care for this patient does not likely involve exercises or assistive devices, since these are unrelated to the etiology of the disease. Improvements to diabetes management may or may not be necessary.

34.

A patient diagnosed with MS has been admitted to the medical unit for treatment of an MS exacerbation. Included in the admission orders is baclofen (Lioresal). What should the nurse identify as an expected outcome of this treatment?

A)

Reduction in the appearance of new lesions on the MRI

B)

Decreased muscle spasms in the lower extremities

C)

Increased muscle strength in the upper extremities

D)

Decreased severity and duration of exacerbations

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Baclofen, a g-aminobutyric acid (GABA) agonist, is the medication of choice in treating spasms. It can be administered orally or by intrathecal injection. Avonex and Betaseron reduce the appearance of new lesions on the MRI. Corticosteroids limit the severity and duration of exacerbations. Anticholinesterase agents increase muscle strength in the upper extremities.

35.

A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with a peripheral neuropathy. When making her plan of care, the nurse knows to include what in patient teaching? Select all that apply.

A)

Inspect the lower extremities for skin breakdown.

B)

Footwear needs to be accurately sized.

C)

Immediate family members should be screened for the disease.

D)

Assistive devices may be needed to reduce the risk of falls.

E)

Dietary modifications are likely necessary.

Ans:

A, B, D

Feedback:

The plan of care includes inspection of the lower extremities for skin breakdown. Footwear should be accurately sized. Assistive devices, such as a walker or cane, may decrease the risk of falls. Bath water temperature is checked to avoid thermal injury. Peripheral neuropathies do not have a genetic component and diet is unrelated.

36.

A 73-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of weakness and loss of sensation in his feet and legs. Assessment of the patient shows decreased reflexes bilaterally. Why would it be a challenge to diagnose a peripheral neuropathy in this patient?

A)

Older adults are often vague historians.

B)

The elderly have fewer peripheral nerves than younger adults.

C)

Many older adults are hesitant to admit that their body is changing.

D)

Many symptoms can be the result of normal aging process.

Ans:

D

Feedback:

The diagnosis of peripheral neuropathy in the geriatric population is challenging because many symptoms, such as decreased reflexes, can be associated with the normal aging process. In this scenario, the patient has come to the clinic seeking help for his problem; this does not indicate a desire on the part of the patient to withhold information from the health care giver. The normal aging process does not include a diminishing number of peripheral nerves.

37.

A patient with MS has been admitted to the hospital following an acute exacerbation. When planning the patients care, the nurse addresses the need to enhance the patients bladder control. What aspect of nursing care is most likely to meet this goal?

A)

Establish a timed voiding schedule.

B)

Avoid foods that change the pH of urine.

C)

Perform intermittent catheterization q6h.

D)

Administer anticholinergic drugs as ordered.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

A timed voiding schedule addresses many of the challenges with urinary continence that face the patient with MS. Interventions should be implemented to prevent the need for catheterization and anticholinergics are not normally used.

38.

A patient with MS has developed dysphagia as a result of cranial nerve dysfunction. What nursing action should the nurse consequently perform?

A)

Arrange for the patient to receive a low residue diet.

B)

Position the patient upright during feeding.

C)

Suction the patient following each meal.

D)

Withhold liquids until the patient has finished eating.

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Correct, upright positioning is necessary to prevent aspiration in the patient with dysphagia. There is no need for a low-residue diet and suctioning should not be performed unless there is an apparent need. Liquids do not need to be withheld during meals in order to prevent aspiration.

39.

A 48-year-old patient has been diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia following recent episodes of unilateral face pain. The nurse should recognize what implication of this diagnosis?

A)

The patient will likely require lifelong treatment with anticholinergic medications.

B)

The patient has a disproportionate risk of developing myasthenia gravis later in life.

C)

The patient needs to be assessed for MS.

D)

The disease is self-limiting and the patient will achieve pain relief over time.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Patients that develop trigeminal neuralgia before age 50 should be evaluated for the coexistent of MS because trigeminal neuralgia occurs in approximately 5% of patients with MS. Treatment does not include anticholinergics and the disease is not self-limiting. Trigeminal neuralgia is not associated with an increased risk of myasthenia gravis.

40.

A patient presents at the clinic complaining of pain and weakness in her hands. On assessment, the nurse notes diminished reflexes in the upper extremities bilaterally and bilateral loss of sensation. The nurse knows that these findings are indicative of what?

A)

Guillain-Barr syndrome

B)

Myasthenia gravis

C)

Trigeminal neuralgia

D)

Peripheral nerve disorder

Ans:

D

Feedback:

The major symptoms of peripheral nerve disorders are loss of sensation, muscle atrophy, weakness, diminished reflexes, pain, and paresthesia (numbness, tingling) of the extremities. Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition of the fifth cranial nerve that is characterized by paroxysms of pain in the area innervated by any of the three branches, but most commonly the second and third branches of the trigeminal nerve. Myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disorder affecting the myoneural junction, is characterized by varying degrees of weakness of the voluntary muscles. Guillain-Barr syndrome is an autoimmune attack on the peripheral nerve myelin.

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