Chapter 70 Nursing School Test Banks

 

1.

A nurse is assessing a patient with an acoustic neuroma who has been recently admitted to an oncology unit. What symptoms is the nurse likely to find during the initial assessment?

A)

Loss of hearing, tinnitus, and vertigo

B)

Loss of vision, change in mental status, and hyperthermia

C)

Loss of hearing, increased sodium retention, and hypertension

D)

Loss of vision, headache, and tachycardia

Ans:

A

Feedback:

An acoustic neuroma is a tumor of the eighth cranial nerve, the cranial nerve most responsible for hearing and balance. The patient with an acoustic neuroma usually experiences loss of hearing, tinnitus, and episodes of vertigo and staggering gait. Acoustic neuromas do not cause loss of vision, increased sodium retention, or tachycardia.

2.

A 25-year-old female patient with brain metastases is considering her life expectancy after her most recent meeting with her oncologist. Based on the fact that the patient is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases, what is the nurses most appropriate action?

A)

Promoting the patients functional status and ADLs

B)

Ensuring that the patient receives adequate palliative care

C)

Ensuring that the family does not tell the patient that her condition is terminal

D)

Promoting adherence to the prescribed medication regimen

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Patients with intracerebral metastases who are not treated have a steady downhill course with a limited survival time, whereas those who are treated may survive for slightly longer periods, but for most cure is not possible. Palliative care is thus necessary. This is a priority over promotion of function and the family should not normally withhold information from the patient. Adherence to medications such as analgesics is important, but palliative care is a high priority.

3.

The nurse is writing a care plan for a patient with brain metastases. The nurse decides that an appropriate nursing diagnosis is anxiety related to lack of control over the health circumstances. In establishing this plan of care for the patient, the nurse should include what intervention?

A)

The patient will receive antianxiety medications every 4 hours.

B)

The patients family will be instructed on planning the patients care.

C)

The patient will be encouraged to verbalize concerns related to the disease and its treatment.

D)

The patient will begin intensive therapy with the goal of distraction.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Patients need the opportunity to exercise some control over their situation. A sense of mastery can be gained as they learn to understand the disease and its treatment and how to deal with their feelings. Distraction and administering medications will not allow the patient to gain control over anxiety. Delegating planning to the family will not help the patient gain a sense of control and autonomy.

4.

A patient with suspected Parkinsons disease is initially being assessed by the nurse. When is the best time to assess for the presence of a tremor?

A)

When the patient is resting

B)

When the patient is ambulating

C)

When the patient is preparing his or her meal tray to eat

D)

When the patient is participating in occupational therapy

Ans:

A

Feedback:

The tremor is present while the patient is at rest; it increases when the patient is walking, concentrating, or feeling anxious. Resting tremor characteristically disappears with purposeful movement, but is evident when the extremities are motionless. Consequently, the nurse should assess for the presence of a tremor when the patient is not performing deliberate actions.

5.

The clinic nurse caring for a patient with Parkinsons disease notes that the patient has been taking levodopa and carbidopa (Sinemet) for 7 years. For what common side effect of Sinemet would the nurse assesses this patient?

A)

Pruritus

B)

Dyskinesia

C)

Lactose intolerance

D)

Diarrhea

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Within 5 to 10 years of taking levodopa, most patients develop a response to the medication characterized by dyskinesia (abnormal involuntary movements). Another potential complication of long-term dopaminergic medication use is neuroleptic malignant syndrome characterized by severe rigidity, stupor, and hyperthermia. Side effects of long-term Sinemet therapy are not pruritus, lactose intolerance, or diarrhea.

6.

The nurse is caring for a boy who has muscular dystrophy. When planning assistance with the patients ADLs, what goal should the nurse prioritize?

A)

Promoting the patients recovery from the disease

B)

Maximizing the patients level of function

C)

Ensuring the patients adherence to treatment

D)

Fostering the familys participation in care

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Priority for the care of the child with muscular dystrophy is the need to maximize the patients level of function. Family participation is also important, but should be guided by this goal. Adherence is not a central goal, even though it is highly beneficial, and the disease is not curable.

7.

A 37-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his wife because he is experiencing loss of motor function and sensation. The physician suspects the patient has a spinal cord tumor and hospitalizes him for diagnostic testing. In light of the need to diagnose spinal cord compression from a tumor, the nurse will most likely prepare the patient for what test?

A)

Anterior-posterior x-ray

B)

Ultrasound

C)

Lumbar puncture

D)

MRI

Ans:

D

Feedback:

The MRI scan is the most commonly used diagnostic procedure. It is the most sensitive diagnostic tool that is particularly helpful in detecting epidural spinal cord compression and vertebral bone metastases.

8.

A patient with Parkinsons disease is undergoing a swallowing assessment because she has recently developed adventitious lung sounds. The patients nutritional needs should be met by what method?

A)

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)

B)

Provision of a low-residue diet

C)

Semisolid food with thick liquids

D)

Minced foods and a fluid restriction

Ans:

C

Feedback:

A semisolid diet with thick liquids is easier for a patient with swallowing difficulties to consume than is a solid diet. Low-residue foods and fluid restriction are unnecessary and counterproductive to the patients nutritional status. The patients status does not warrant TPN.

9.

While assessing the patient at the beginning of the shift, the nurse inspects a surgical dressing covering the operative site after the patients cervical diskectomy. The nurse notes that the drainage is 75% saturated with serosanguineous discharge. What is the nurses most appropriate action?

A)

Page the physician and report this sign of infection.

B)

Reinforce the dressing and reassess in 1 to 2 hours.

C)

Reposition the patient to prevent further hemorrhage.

D)

Inform the surgeon of the possibility of a dural leak.

Ans:

D

Feedback:

After a cervical diskectomy, the nurse will monitor the operative site and dressing covering this site. Serosanguineous drainage may indicate a dural leak. This constitutes a risk for meningitis, but is not a direct sign of infection. This should be reported to the surgeon, not just reinforced and observed.

10.

A patient, diagnosed with cancer of the lung, has just been told he has metastases to the brain. What change in health status would the nurse attribute to the patients metastatic brain disease?

A)

Chronic pain

B)

Respiratory distress

C)

Fixed pupils

D)

Personality changes

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Neurologic signs and symptoms include headache, gait disturbances, visual impairment, personality changes, altered mentation (memory loss and confusion), focal weakness, paralysis, aphasia, and seizures. Pain, respiratory distress, and fixed pupils are not among the more common neurologic signs and symptoms of metastatic brain disease.

11.

A patient has just been diagnosed with Parkinsons disease and the nurse is planning the patients subsequent care for the home setting. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse address when educating the patients family?

A)

Risk for infection

B)

Impaired spontaneous ventilation

C)

Unilateral neglect

D)

Risk for injury

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Individuals with Parkinsons disease face a significant risk for injury related to the effects of dyskinesia. Unilateral neglect is not characteristic of the disease, which affects both sides of the body. Parkinsons disease does not directly constitute a risk for infection or impaired respiration.

12.

The nurse is caring for a patient with Huntington disease who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of malnutrition. What independent nursing action should be implemented in the patients plan of care?

A)

Firmly redirect the patients head when feeding.

B)

Administer phenothiazines after each meal as ordered.

C)

Encourage the patient to keep his or her feeding area clean.

D)

Apply deep, gentle pressure around the patients mouth to aid swallowing.

Ans:

D

Feedback:

Nursing interventions for a patient who has inadequate nutritional intake should include the following: Apply deep gentle pressure around the patients mouth to assist with swallowing, and administer phenothiazines prior to the patients meal as ordered. The nurse should disregard the mess of the feeding area and treat the person with dignity. Stiffness and turning away by the patient during feeding are uncontrollable choreiform movements and should not be interrupted.

13.

A patient has been admitted to the neurologic unit for the treatment of a newly diagnosed brain tumor. The patient has just exhibited seizure activity for the first time. What is the nurses priority response to this event?

A)

Identify the triggers that precipitated the seizure.

B)

Implement precautions to ensure the patients safety.

C)

Teach the patients family about the relationship between brain tumors and seizure activity.

D)

Ensure that the patient is housed in a private room.

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Patients with seizures are carefully monitored and protected from injury. Patient safety is a priority over health education, even though this is appropriate and necessary. Specific triggers may or may not be evident; identifying these is not the highest priority. A private room is preferable, but not absolutely necessary.

14.

A patient diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma has arrived on the neurologic unit. When planning the patients care, the nurse should be aware that the effects of the tumor will primarily depend on what variable?

A)

Whether the tumor utilizes aerobic or anaerobic respiration

B)

The specific hormones secreted by the tumor

C)

The patients pre-existing health status

D)

Whether the tumor is primary or the result of metastasis

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Functioning pituitary tumors can produce one or more hormones normally produced by the anterior pituitary and the effects of the tumor depend largely on the identity of these hormones. This variable is more significant than the patients health status or whether the tumor is primary versus secondary. Anaerobic and aerobic respiration is not relevant.

15.

A male patient with a metastatic brain tumor is having a generalized seizure and begins vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

A)

Perform oral suctioning.

B)

Page the physician.

C)

Insert a tongue depressor into the patients mouth.

D)

Turn the patient on his side.

Ans:

D

Feedback:

The nurses first response should be to place the patient on his side to prevent him from aspirating emesis. Inserting something into the seizing patients mouth is no longer part of a seizure protocol. Obtaining supplies to suction the patient would be a delegated task. Paging or calling the physician would only be necessary if this is the patients first seizure.

16.

The nurse in an extended care facility is planning the daily activities of a patient with postpolio syndrome. The nurse recognizes the patient will best benefit from physical therapy when it is scheduled at what time?

A)

Immediately after meals

B)

In the morning

C)

Before bedtime

D)

In the early evening

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Important activities for patients with postpolio syndrome should be planned for the morning, as fatigue often increases in the afternoon and evening.

17.

A patient newly diagnosed with a cervical disk herniation is receiving health education from the clinic nurse. What conservative management measures should the nurse teach the patient to implement?

A)

Perform active ROM exercises three times daily.

B)

Sleep on a firm mattress.

C)

Apply cool compresses to the back of the neck daily.

D)

Wear the cervical collar for at least 2 hours at a time.

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Proper positioning on a firm mattress and bed rest for 1 to 2 days may bring dramatic relief from pain. The patient may need to wear a cervical collar 24 hours a day during the acute phase of pain from a cervical disk herniation. Hot, moist compresses applied to the back of the neck will increase blood flow to the muscles and help relax the spastic muscles.

18.

A patient has just returned to the unit from the PACU after surgery for a tumor within the spine. The patient complains of pain. When positioning the patient for comfort and to reduce injury to the surgical site, the nurse will position to patient in what position?

A)

In the high Fowlers position

B)

In a flat side-lying position

C)

In the Trendelenberg position

D)

In the reverse Trendelenberg position

Ans:

B

Feedback:

After spinal surgery, the bed is usually kept flat initially. The side-lying position is usually the most comfortable because this position imposes the least pressure on the surgical site. The Fowlers position, Trendelenberg position, and reverse Trendelenberg position are inappropriate for this patient because they would result in increased pain and complications.

19.

A patient with Huntington disease has just been admitted to a long-term care facility. The charge nurse is creating a care plan for this patient. Nutritional management for a patient with Huntington disease should be informed by what principle?

A)

The patient is likely to have an increased appetite.

B)

The patient is likely to required enzyme supplements.

C)

The patient will likely require a clear liquid diet.

D)

The patient will benefit from a low-protein diet.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Due to the continuous involuntary movements, patients will have a ravenous appetite. Despite this ravenous appetite, patients usually become emaciated and exhausted. As the disease progresses, patients experience difficulty in swallowing and thin liquids should be avoided. Protein will not be limited with this disease. Enzyme supplements are not normally required.

20.

A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is being visited by the home health nurse who is creating a care plan. What nursing diagnosis is most likely for a patient with this condition?

A)

Chronic confusion

B)

Impaired urinary elimination

C)

Impaired verbal communication

D)

Bowel incontinence

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Impaired communication is an appropriate nursing diagnosis; the voice in patients with ALS assumes a nasal sound and articulation becomes so disrupted that speech is unintelligible. Intellectual function is marginally impaired in patients with late ALS. Usually, the anal and bladder sphincters are intact because the spinal nerves that control muscles of the rectum and urinary bladder are not affected.

21.

The nurse educator is discussing neoplasms with a group of recent graduates. The educator explains that the effects of neoplasms are caused by the compression and infiltration of normal tissue. The physiologic changes that result can cause what pathophysiologic events? Select all that apply.

A)

Intracranial hemorrhage

B)

Infection of cerebrospinal fluid

C)

Increased ICP

D)

Focal neurologic signs

E)

Altered pituitary function

Ans:

C, D, E

Feedback:

The effects of neoplasms are caused by the compression and infiltration of tissue. A variety of physiologic changes result, causing any or all of the following pathophysiologic events: increased ICP and cerebral edema, seizure activity and focal neurologic signs, hydrocephalus, and altered pituitary function.

22.

The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with a primary brain tumor. The patient asks the nurse where his tumor came from. What would be the nurses best response?

A)

Your tumor originated from somewhere outside the CNS.

B)

Your tumor likely started out in one of your glands.

C)

Your tumor originated from cells within your brain itself.

D)

Your tumor is from nerve tissue somewhere in your body.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Primary brain tumors originate from cells and structures within the brain. Secondary brain tumors are metastatic tumors that originate somewhere else in the body. The scenario does not indicate that the patients tumor is a pituitary tumor or a neuroma.

23.

A gerontologic nurse is advocating for diagnostic testing of an 81-year-old patient who is experiencing personality changes. The nurse is aware of what factor that is known to affect the diagnosis and treatment of brain tumors in older adults?

A)

The effects of brain tumors are often attributed to the cognitive effects of aging.

B)

Brain tumors in older adults do not normally produce focal effects.

C)

Older adults typically have numerous benign brain tumors by the eighth decade of life.

D)

Brain tumors cannot normally be treated in patient over age 75.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

In older adult patients, early signs and symptoms of intracranial tumors can be easily overlooked or incorrectly attributed to cognitive and neurologic changes associated with normal aging. Brain tumors are not normally benign and they produce focal effects in all patients. Treatment options are not dependent primarily on age.

24.

A patient who has been experiencing numerous episodes of unexplained headaches and vomiting has subsequently been referred for testing to rule out a brain tumor. What characteristic of the patients vomiting is most consistent with a brain tumor?

A)

The patients vomiting is accompanied by epistaxis.

B)

The patients vomiting does not relieve his nausea.

C)

The patients vomiting is unrelated to food intake.

D)

The patients emesis is blood-tinged.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Vomiting is often unrelated to food intake if caused by a brain tumor. The presence or absence of blood is not related to the possible etiology and vomiting may or may not relieve the patients nausea.

25.

A male patient presents at the free clinic with complaints of impotency. Upon physical examination, the nurse practitioner notes the presence of hypogonadism. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect?

A)

Prolactinoma

B)

Angioma

C)

Glioma

D)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)producing adenoma

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Male patients with prolactinomas may present with impotence and hypogonadism. An ACTH-producing adenoma would cause acromegaly. The scenario contains insufficient information to know if the tumor is an angioma, glioma, or neuroma.

26.

The nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been recently diagnosed with a cerebellar tumor. Due to the location of this patients tumor, the nurse should implement measures to prevent what complication?

A)

Falls

B)

Audio hallucinations

C)

Respiratory depression

D)

Labile BP

Ans:

A

Feedback:

A cerebellar tumor causes dizziness, an ataxic or staggering gait with a tendency to fall toward the side of the lesion, and marked muscle incoordination. Because of this, the patient faces a high risk of falls. Hallucinations and unstable vital signs are not closely associated with cerebellar tumors.

27.

A patient has been admitted to the neurologic ICU with a diagnosis of a brain tumor. The patient is scheduled to have a tumor resection/removal in the morning. Which of the following assessment parameters should the nurse include in the initial assessment?

A)

Gag reflex

B)

Deep tendon reflexes

C)

Abdominal girth

D)

Hearing acuity

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Preoperatively, the gag reflex and ability to swallow are evaluated. In patients with diminished gag response, care includes teaching the patient to direct food and fluids toward the unaffected side, having the patient sit upright to eat, offering a semisoft diet, and having suction readily available. Deep tendon reflexes, abdominal girth, and hearing acuity are less commonly affected by brain tumors and do not affect the risk for aspiration.

28.

A patient with a brain tumor has begun to exhibit signs of cachexia. What subsequent assessment should the nurse prioritize?

A)

Assessment of peripheral nervous function

B)

Assessment of cranial nerve function

C)

Assessment of nutritional status

D)

Assessment of respiratory status

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Cachexia is a wasting syndrome of weight loss, muscle atrophy, fatigue, weakness, and significant loss of appetite. Consequently, nutritional assessment is paramount.

29.

A patient with an inoperable brain tumor has been told that he has a short life expectancy. On what aspects of assessment and care should the home health nurse focus? Select all that apply.

A)

Pain control

B)

Management of treatment complications

C)

Interpretation of diagnostic tests

D)

Assistance with self-care

E)

Administration of treatments

Ans:

A, B, D, E

Feedback:

Home care needs and interventions focus on four major areas: palliation of symptoms and pain control, assistance in self-care, control of treatment complications, and administration of specific forms of treatment, such as parenteral nutrition. Interpretation of diagnostic tests is normally beyond the purview of the nurse.

30.

An older adult has encouraged her husband to visit their primary care provider, stating that she is concerned that he may have Parkinsons disease. Which of the wifes descriptions of her husbands health and function is most suggestive of Parkinsons disease?

A)

Lately he seems to move far more slowly than he ever has in the past.

B)

He often complains that his joints are terribly stiff when he wakes up in the morning.

C)

Hes forgotten the names of some people that weve known for years.

D)

Hes losing weight even though he has a ravenous appetite.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Parkinsons disease is characterized by bradykinesia. It does not manifest as memory loss, increased appetite, or joint stiffness.

31.

A patient, brought to the clinic by his wife and son, is diagnosed with Huntington disease. When providing anticipatory guidance, the nurse should address the future possibility of what effect of Huntington disease?

A)

Metastasis

B)

Risk for stroke

C)

Emotional and personality changes

D)

Pathologic bone fractures

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Huntington disease causes profound changes to personality and behavior. It is a nonmalignant disease and stroke is not a central risk. The disease is not associated with pathologic bone fractures.

32.

A patient who was diagnosed with Parkinsons disease several months ago recently began treatment with levodopa-carbidopa. The patient and his family are excited that he has experienced significant symptom relief. The nurse should be aware of what implication of the patients medication regimen?

A)

The patient is in a honeymoon period when adverse effects of levodopa-carbidopa are not yet evident.

B)

Benefits of levodopa-carbidopa do not peak until 6 to 9 months after the initiation of treatment.

C)

The patients temporary improvement in status is likely unrelated to levodopa-carbidopa.

D)

Benefits of levodopa-carbidopa often diminish after 1 or 2 years of treatment.

Ans:

D

Feedback:

The beneficial effects of levodopa therapy are most pronounced in the first year or two of treatment. Benefits begin to wane and adverse effects become more severe over time. However, a honeymoon period of treatment is not known.

33.

The nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with Parkinsons disease has prepared a plan of care that would include what goal?

A)

Promoting effective communication

B)

Controlling diarrhea

C)

Preventing cognitive decline

D)

Managing choreiform movements

Ans:

A

Feedback:

The goals for the patient may include improving functional mobility, maintaining independence in ADLs, achieving adequate bowel elimination, attaining and maintaining acceptable nutritional status, achieving effective communication, and developing positive coping mechanisms. Constipation is more likely than diarrhea and cognition largely remains intact. Choreiform movements are related to Huntington disease.

34.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with Parkinsons disease. The patient is having increasing problems with rising from the sitting to the standing position. What should the nurse suggest to the patient to use that will aid in getting from the sitting to the standing position as well as aid in improving bowel elimination?

A)

Use of a bedpan

B)

Use of a raised toilet seat

C)

Sitting quietly on the toilet every 2 hours

D)

Following the outlined bowel program

Ans:

B

Feedback:

A raised toilet seat is useful, because the patient has difficulty in moving from a standing to a sitting position. A handicapped toilet is not high enough and will not aid in improving bowel elimination. Sitting quietly on the toilet every 2 hours will not aid in getting from the sitting to standing position; neither will following the outlined bowel program.

35.

A patient with Parkinsons disease is experiencing episodes of constipation that are becoming increasingly frequent and severe. The patient states that he has been achieving relief for the past few weeks by using OTC laxatives. How should the nurse respond?

A)

Its important to drink plenty of fluids while youre taking laxatives.

B)

Make sure that you supplement your laxatives with a nutritious diet.

C)

Lets explore other options, because laxatives can have side effects and create dependency.

D)

You should ideally be using herbal remedies rather than medications to promote bowel function.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

Laxatives should be avoided in patients with Parkinsons disease due to the risk of adverse effects and dependence. Herbal bowel remedies are not necessarily less risky.

36.

A family member of a patient diagnosed with Huntington disease calls you at the clinic. She is requesting help from the Huntingtons Disease Society of America. What kind of help can this patient and family receive from this organization? Select all that apply.

A)

Information about this disease

B)

Referrals

C)

Public education

D)

Individual assessments

E)

Appraisals of research studies

Ans:

A, B, C

Feedback:

The Huntingtons Disease Society of America helps patients and families by providing information, referrals, family and public education, and support for research. It does not provide individual assessments or appraisals of individual research studies.

37.

A patient with a new diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is overwhelmed by his diagnosis and the known complications of the disease. How can the patient best make known his wishes for care as his disease progresses?

A)

Prepare an advance directive.

B)

Designate a most responsible physician (MRP) early in the course of the disease.

C)

Collaborate with representatives from the Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis Association.

D)

Ensure that witnesses are present when he provides instruction.

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Patients with ALS are encouraged to complete an advance directive or living will to preserve their autonomy in decision making. None of the other listed actions constitutes a legally binding statement of end-of-life care.

38.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a cervical discectomy the following day. During health education, the patient should be made aware of what potential complications?

A)

Vertebral fracture

B)

Hematoma at the surgical site

C)

Scoliosis

D)

Renal trauma

Ans:

B

Feedback:

Based on all the assessment data, the potential complications of diskectomy may include hematoma at the surgical site, resulting in cord compression and neurologic deficit and recurrent or persistent pain after surgery. Renal trauma and fractures are unlikely; scoliosis is a congenital malformation of the spine.

39.

The nurse responds to the call light of a patient who has had a cervical diskectomy earlier in the day. The patient states that she is having severe pain that had a sudden onset. What is the nurses most appropriate action?

A)

Palpate the surgical site.

B)

Remove the dressing to assess the surgical site.

C)

Call the surgeon to report the patients pain.

D)

Administer a dose of an NSAID.

Ans:

C

Feedback:

If the patient experiences a sudden increase in pain, extrusion of the graft may have occurred, requiring reoperation. A sudden increase in pain should be promptly reported to the surgeon. Administration of an NSAID would be an insufficient response and the dressing should not be removed without an order. Palpation could cause further damage.

40.

A nurse is planning discharge education for a patient who underwent a cervical diskectomy. What strategies would the nurse assess that would aid in planning discharge teaching?

A)

Care of the cervical collar

B)

Technique for performing neck ROM exercises

C)

Home assessment of ABGs

D)

Techniques for restoring nerve function

Ans:

A

Feedback:

Prior to discharge, the nurse should assess the patients use and care of the cervical collar. Neck ROM exercises would be contraindicated and ABGs cannot be assessed in the home. Nerve function is not compromised by a diskectomy.

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